the nurse is assessing a clients cranial nerve function which assessment finding indicates that cranial nerve ii is intact
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Fundamentals Quizlet

1. During a client assessment, the healthcare provider is evaluating cranial nerve function. Which assessment finding suggests that cranial nerve II is intact?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The ability to read a Snellen chart from 20 feet away indicates intact cranial nerve II (optic nerve), responsible for vision. Hearing a whisper (A) is associated with cranial nerve VIII (vestibulocochlear nerve), identifying an object by touch (B) is related to cranial nerves V (trigeminal nerve) and VII (facial nerve), and shoulder shrugging against resistance (C) is a test for cranial nerve XI (accessory nerve). Thus, the correct answer is D as it specifically tests the function of cranial nerve II.

2. The healthcare provider is teaching a client with hypertension about lifestyle modifications. Which instruction should the healthcare provider include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Engaging in moderate exercise for 30 minutes daily is a crucial lifestyle modification for managing hypertension. Regular physical activity helps lower blood pressure, improve cardiovascular health, and overall well-being. It is recommended to engage in activities like brisk walking, cycling, or swimming to achieve these benefits. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Limiting sodium intake, avoiding a diet high in saturated fats, and reducing alcohol consumption are also important lifestyle modifications for hypertension management, but engaging in moderate exercise is the most appropriate initial instruction for this client.

3. While suctioning a tracheostomy tube, the client starts to cough. What is the best action for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client coughs during tracheostomy tube suctioning, the nurse should gently withdraw the suction tubing. This action allows the client to cough out mucus naturally, reducing the risk of further irritation and promoting effective airway clearance. Choice A is incorrect because suctioning deeper can cause trauma and increase the risk of complications. Choice C is incorrect as removing the suction quickly may not allow the client to clear the mucus adequately. Choice D is incorrect as inserting and removing the suction multiple times can lead to unnecessary trauma and discomfort for the client.

4. A client with a diagnosis of asthma is receiving albuterol (Proventil) via a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). Which assessment finding indicates that the medication is effective?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increased oxygen saturation (A) is the most direct indicator of the effectiveness of albuterol (Proventil) in improving breathing. Oxygen saturation reflects the amount of oxygen in the blood, showing that the albuterol is helping with air exchange in the lungs. While decreased respiratory rate (B), absence of audible wheezing (C), and improved exercise tolerance (D) are positive outcomes, they are secondary to oxygen saturation. Oxygen saturation directly reflects the improvement in the client's respiratory status and the effectiveness of the medication.

5. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering regular insulin IV (A) is the initial intervention for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) to rapidly reduce blood glucose levels. This is vital in reversing the ketosis and acidosis seen in DKA. Administering IV fluids (B) helps to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Administering sodium bicarbonate (C) and furosemide (D) may be necessary depending on the client's condition, but insulin administration takes precedence in the management of DKA.

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