Nursing Elites

1. During a client assessment, the healthcare provider is evaluating cranial nerve function. Which assessment finding suggests that cranial nerve II is intact?

• A. The client can hear a whisper from 1 to 2 feet away.
• B. The client can identify an object by touch.
• C. The client can shrug the shoulders against resistance.
• D. The client can read a Snellen chart from 20 feet away.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The ability to read a Snellen chart from 20 feet away indicates intact cranial nerve II (optic nerve), responsible for vision. Hearing a whisper (A) is associated with cranial nerve VIII (vestibulocochlear nerve), identifying an object by touch (B) is related to cranial nerves V (trigeminal nerve) and VII (facial nerve), and shoulder shrugging against resistance (C) is a test for cranial nerve XI (accessory nerve). Thus, the correct answer is D as it specifically tests the function of cranial nerve II.

2. Warm compresses are ordered for an open wound. Which action is appropriate for the nurse?

• A. Use sterile technique when applying the compresses.
• B. Leave the compresses on the area continuously, pouring warm solution on the area when it cools down.
• C. Alternate warm compresses with cold compresses.
• D. Apply a wet dressing and cover it with a dry dressing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Using sterile technique when applying the compresses is crucial to prevent infection and promote wound healing. Ensuring a clean environment during wound care reduces the risk of introducing pathogens that can lead to complications. Proper infection control measures play a significant role in the healing process of open wounds. Choice B is incorrect because leaving the compresses on continuously can lead to skin damage or thermal injury. Choice C is incorrect as alternating warm compresses with cold compresses is not appropriate for an open wound. Choice D is incorrect as applying a wet dressing without following specific orders can be detrimental to wound healing.

3. While reviewing the side effects of a newly prescribed medication, a 72-year-old client notes that one of the side effects is a reduction in sexual drive. Which is the best response by the nurse?

• A. How will this affect your present sexual activity?
• B. How active is your current sex life?
• C. How has your sex life changed as you have become older?
• D. Tell me about your sexual needs as an older adult.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Option A is the best response as it directly addresses the client's concern about the reduction in sexual drive caused by the medication. It encourages the client to express their thoughts and feelings about how this side effect may impact their current sexual activity, facilitating open communication and understanding between the nurse and the client. Choices B, C, and D are not as appropriate as they do not directly address the client's immediate concern regarding the impact of the medication on their sexual drive.

4. The client is being taught how to perform active range of motion (ROM) exercises. To exercise the hinge joints, which action should the client be instructed to perform?

• A. Tilt the pelvis forwards and backwards
• B. Bend the arm by flexing the ulnar to the humerus
• C. Turn the head to the right and left
• D. Extend the arm at the side and rotate it in circles

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hinge joints, like the elbow, primarily allow movement in one direction, in this case, bending the arm. The correct action to exercise hinge joints is to bend the arm by flexing the ulnar to the humerus. This movement specifically targets the hinge joint and promotes its range of motion. Choices A, C, and D involve movements that do not specifically target hinge joints. Tilt the pelvis involves the ball-and-socket joints of the hip, turning the head involves the pivot joint of the neck, and extending the arm and rotating it in circles involve multiple joints including ball-and-socket and pivot joints.

5. The healthcare professional is administering an intermittent infusion of an antibiotic to a client with an antecubital saline lock. After opening the roller clamp on the IV tubing, the alarm on the infusion pump indicates an obstruction. What action should be taken first?

• A. Check for a blood return.
• B. Reposition the client's arm.
• C. Remove the IV site dressing.
• D. Flush the lock with saline.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Repositioning the client's arm is the initial action to take when encountering an obstruction with an antecubital saline lock. Repositioning may correct any bending at the elbow that could be causing the obstruction, allowing for smoother infusion flow. Checking for a blood return, removing the IV site dressing, or flushing the lock with saline would be subsequent actions once the obstruction is addressed. Checking for a blood return is done to confirm proper placement, removing the IV site dressing is necessary for site assessment, and flushing the lock with saline helps maintain patency but should not be the first action when an obstruction is detected.

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