the nurse is assessing a client with a small bowel obstruction who was hospitalized 24 hours ago which assessment finding should the nurse report imme
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2023

1. The nurse is assessing a client with a small bowel obstruction who was hospitalized 24 hours ago. Which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Rebound tenderness in the upper quadrants may indicate peritonitis, which requires prompt medical attention. Hypoactive bowel sounds are expected in small bowel obstruction and would not be a priority over signs of peritonitis. Tympany with percussion is a normal finding and not a cause for immediate concern. Light-colored gastric aspirate could indicate various issues but is not as urgent as peritonitis.

2. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) receiving erythropoietin therapy, the nurse should closely monitor the serum potassium level. Erythropoietin therapy can increase red blood cell production, leading to a higher demand for potassium. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hyperkalemia, a potential risk associated with this therapy. Hemoglobin level (Choice B) is important to assess the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy, but monitoring potassium levels takes precedence due to the risk of hyperkalemia. White blood cell count (Choice C) and serum calcium level (Choice D) are not directly affected by erythropoietin therapy in the context of chronic kidney disease.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with a tracheostomy who has thick, tenacious secretions. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Mucous plugging of the tracheostomy tube is the most concerning assessment finding in a client with a tracheostomy. It can lead to airway obstruction, which requires immediate intervention to ensure the client's airway remains patent. Crepitus around the tracheostomy site may indicate subcutaneous emphysema but is not as urgent as a blocked airway. A dry and cracked tracheostomy site may indicate poor skin integrity but does not pose an immediate threat to the client's airway. Yellowing of the skin around the tracheostomy site could suggest a localized infection, but it is not as critical as a potential airway obstruction caused by mucous plugging.

4. A client with a history of myocardial infarction is admitted with chest pain. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Troponin level. Troponin levels should be closely monitored in a client with chest pain and a history of myocardial infarction to assess for ongoing myocardial injury. Troponin is a specific marker for myocardial damage. Monitoring white blood cell count (choice A) is not directly related to myocardial infarction. Serum creatinine (choice B) is more indicative of renal function rather than cardiac status. Hemoglobin level (choice D) is important but does not directly reflect ongoing myocardial injury.

5. When administering ceftriaxone sodium (Rocephin) intravenously to a client, which assessment finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stridor. Stridor is a high-pitched, noisy breathing sound that indicates a potential airway obstruction, which can be caused by an allergic reaction. This finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse to ensure the client's airway is patent and to prevent respiratory distress. Nausea, headache, and pruritus are potential side effects of ceftriaxone sodium but do not pose immediate life-threatening risks compared to airway obstruction indicated by stridor.

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