Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing a 6-month-old infant. Which response requires further evaluation by the nurse?

• A. Has doubled birth weight.
• B. Turns head to locate sound.
• C. Plays peek-a-boo.
• D. Demonstrates startle reflex.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: At 6 months old, the startle reflex should diminish, so its persistence warrants further evaluation by the nurse. Choices A, B, and C are appropriate developmental milestones for a 6-month-old infant. By 6 months, infants typically double their birth weight, exhibit localization of sound by turning their head, and engage in interactive play like peek-a-boo.

2. A child who weighs 25 kg is receiving IV ampicillin at a dose of 300 mg/kg/24 hours in equally divided doses every 4 hours. How many milligrams should the nurse administer to the child for each dose?

• A. 1875 mg
• B. 625 mg
• C. 2000 mg
• D. 1500 mg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the correct dose for each administration, you first need to find the total daily dose: 300 mg/kg * 25 kg = 7500 mg/day. Since this total dose is divided into equally divided doses every 4 hours, there are 6 doses in 24 hours. Therefore, 7500 mg ÷ 6 doses = 1250 mg per dose. The nurse should administer 1250 mg every 4 hours, resulting in a total of 1875 mg for each dose in a 24-hour period. Choice A, 1875 mg, is the correct answer. Choice B, 625 mg, is incorrect as it does not consider the total daily dose and the frequency of administration. Choice C, 2000 mg, is incorrect as it is not the calculated dosage based on the given parameters. Choice D, 1500 mg, is also incorrect as it does not reflect the correct dosage calculation for each dose.

3. A 3-year-old with a congenital heart defect has had a steady decrease in heart rate, now at 76 bpm from 110 bpm four hours ago. Which additional finding should be reported immediately to a healthcare provider?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 94%.
• B. Respiratory rate of 25 breaths/minute.
• C. Urine output of 20 mL/hr.
• D. Blood pressure of 70/40.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A significant drop in heart rate and blood pressure should be reported immediately as it may indicate worsening of the congenital heart defect. The blood pressure of 70/40 is dangerously low and requires immediate attention to prevent further complications. Oxygen saturation of 94% is within an acceptable range and does not indicate immediate danger. A respiratory rate of 25 breaths/minute is slightly elevated but not a critical finding. Urine output of 20 mL/hr is low but may not be the most concerning finding in this scenario compared to the drop in blood pressure.

4. In a 6-year-old child with asthma experiencing difficulty breathing and using accessory muscles to breathe with a peak flow reading in the red zone, what should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer a nebulized bronchodilator
• B. Obtain an arterial blood gas
• C. Start the child on oxygen therapy
• D. Contact the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for a 6-year-old child with asthma who is experiencing difficulty breathing, using accessory muscles to breathe, and has a peak flow reading in the red zone is to administer a nebulized bronchodilator first. Nebulized bronchodilators work rapidly to open up the airways, providing immediate relief and improving breathing. This intervention is crucial in addressing the acute respiratory distress the child is facing. Obtaining an arterial blood gas, starting oxygen therapy, or contacting the healthcare provider can be considered after the initial administration of the bronchodilator, as they are not the primary interventions needed to manage the child's acute respiratory distress.

5. The parents of a 3-year-old boy who has Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) ask, 'how can our son have this disease? We are wondering if we should have any more children.' What information should the nurse provide these parents?

• A. This is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which primarily affects male children in the family.
• B. The male infant had a viral infection that went unnoticed and untreated, leading to muscle damage.
• C. The lack of the protein dystrophin in the mother can impact the muscle groups of males.
• D. Damage to the spinal cord due to birth trauma from a breech vaginal birth weakens the muscles.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should inform the parents that Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder, which primarily affects male children in the family. This genetic condition is caused by a mutation in the dystrophin gene located on the X chromosome. Females are usually carriers of the gene mutation and may pass it on to their sons. Daughters of carrier mothers have a 50% chance of being carriers themselves. Understanding the genetics of DMD can help the parents make informed decisions about family planning and genetic counseling.

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