Nursing Elites

1. The nurse identifies a client's needs and formulates the nursing problem of 'Imbalance nutrition: Less than body requirements, related to mental impairment and decreased intake, as evidenced by increasing confusion and weight loss of more than 30 pounds over the last 6 months.' Which short-term goal is best for this client?

• A. Eat 50% of six small meals each day by the end of the week.
• B. Gain 5 pounds by the end of the month.
• C. Have increased caloric intake.
• D. Show improved nutritional status.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct short-term goal for the client in this scenario is option A: 'Eat 50% of six small meals each day by the end of the week.' This goal is specific, measurable, and time-bound, which aligns with the SMART criteria for goal setting in nursing care. It addresses the client's nutritional needs directly, focusing on increasing meal frequency to meet body requirements and counteract weight loss. Option B, 'Gain 5 pounds by the end of the month,' is not as suitable as it lacks specificity and a short-term timeline, making it less achievable within the immediate care plan. Option C, 'Have increased caloric intake,' is vague and does not provide a measurable target for the client to work towards. Option D, 'Show improved nutritional status,' is a broad goal that lacks the specificity needed for effective short-term goal setting in nursing care. Therefore, option A is the most appropriate choice for this client's short-term goal.

2. The nurse is planning an immunization campaign targeting the children of migrant farm workers in the community. Which data should the nurse review before exploring solution options when developing this program plan?

• A. uncertain risks
• B. potential outcomes
• C. priority of solutions
• D. target population data

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct. Before designing an immunization campaign for the children of migrant farm workers, the nurse should review target population data. This includes understanding the specific demographics, health needs, and challenges faced by this population to create a tailored and effective program. Reviewing uncertain risks (choice A) may not provide actionable insights for program development. Considering potential outcomes (choice B) is important but comes after understanding the target population. Evaluating the priority of solutions (choice C) is premature without knowing the specific characteristics and needs of the target population.

3. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer an intravenous (IV) medication to a client. Which action should the healthcare provider take first?

• A. Verify the client's identity using two identifiers.
• B. Check the client's allergy status.
• C. Prepare the medication for administration.
• D. Administer the medication at the prescribed rate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Checking the client's allergy status is the priority before administering any medication, especially intravenously. This step helps identify any potential allergic reactions and prevents harm to the client. Verifying the client's identity using two identifiers is important but not the first step in medication administration. Preparing the medication for administration and administering the medication at the prescribed rate come after ensuring the client's safety by checking for allergies.

4. A client with a history of epilepsy is admitted with status epilepticus. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
• B. Lorazepam (Ativan)
• C. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
• D. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, the initial medication of choice is a benzodiazepine such as lorazepam (Ativan) to rapidly terminate the seizure activity. Lorazepam acts quickly and effectively in stopping seizures. Phenytoin (Dilantin) is often used as a second-line agent for status epilepticus, and carbamazepine (Tegretol) is not typically indicated for the acute treatment of status epilepticus. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is a pain reliever and antipyretic but is not used in the treatment of status epilepticus.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction. Which finding indicates that the client may have developed hypokalemia?

• A. Muscle weakness and cramps.
• B. Nausea and vomiting.
• C. Constipation.
• D. Increased blood pressure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Muscle weakness and cramps are characteristic signs of hypokalemia, a condition marked by low levels of potassium in the blood. Potassium is essential for proper muscle function, and its deficiency can lead to muscle weakness and cramps. In the context of a client with a nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction, the loss of potassium through suctioning can contribute to the development of hypokalemia. Nausea and vomiting (choice B) are more commonly associated with gastrointestinal issues rather than hypokalemia. Constipation (choice C) is not a typical finding of hypokalemia; instead, it can be a sign of other gastrointestinal problems. Increased blood pressure (choice D) is not a direct manifestation of hypokalemia; in fact, low potassium levels are more commonly associated with decreased blood pressure.

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