HESI RN
Community Health HESI 2023 Quizlet
1. The nurse identifies a client's needs and formulates the nursing problem of 'Imbalance nutrition: Less than body requirements, related to mental impairment and decreased intake, as evidenced by increasing confusion and weight loss of more than 30 pounds over the last 6 months.' Which short-term goal is best for this client?
- A. Eat 50% of six small meals each day by the end of the week.
- B. Gain 5 pounds by the end of the month.
- C. Have increased caloric intake.
- D. Show improved nutritional status.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct short-term goal for the client in this scenario is option A: 'Eat 50% of six small meals each day by the end of the week.' This goal is specific, measurable, and time-bound, which aligns with the SMART criteria for goal setting in nursing care. It addresses the client's nutritional needs directly, focusing on increasing meal frequency to meet body requirements and counteract weight loss. Option B, 'Gain 5 pounds by the end of the month,' is not as suitable as it lacks specificity and a short-term timeline, making it less achievable within the immediate care plan. Option C, 'Have increased caloric intake,' is vague and does not provide a measurable target for the client to work towards. Option D, 'Show improved nutritional status,' is a broad goal that lacks the specificity needed for effective short-term goal setting in nursing care. Therefore, option A is the most appropriate choice for this client's short-term goal.
2. The nurse is developing a series of childbirth preparation classes for primigravida women and their significant others. What is the priority expected outcome for these classes?
- A. Participants can identify at least three coping strategies to use during labor.
- B. Participants can list signs of labor and when to come to the hospital.
- C. Participants can describe three pain relief measures to use during labor.
- D. Participants can perform three relaxation techniques to use during labor.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority expected outcome for childbirth preparation classes is for participants to be able to identify coping strategies to use during labor. This is crucial as coping strategies can help women manage pain, stress, and anxiety during childbirth. Choice B is important but does not focus on coping strategies needed during labor. Choice C is relevant but focuses solely on pain relief measures which are a part of coping strategies. Choice D is also relevant but does not encompass all aspects of coping with labor effectively.
3. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer an intravenous (IV) medication to a client. Which action should the healthcare provider take first?
- A. Verify the client's identity using two identifiers.
- B. Check the client's allergy status.
- C. Prepare the medication for administration.
- D. Administer the medication at the prescribed rate.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Checking the client's allergy status is the priority before administering any medication, especially intravenously. This step helps identify any potential allergic reactions and prevents harm to the client. Verifying the client's identity using two identifiers is important but not the first step in medication administration. Preparing the medication for administration and administering the medication at the prescribed rate come after ensuring the client's safety by checking for allergies.
4. A client with a history of alcohol abuse is admitted with acute pancreatitis. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Amylase of 120 U/L.
- B. Lipase of 150 U/L.
- C. Calcium of 8.5 mg/dL.
- D. Temperature of 101°F (38.3°C).
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client with acute pancreatitis and a history of alcohol abuse, a temperature of 101°F (38.3°C) can indicate infection, which is a serious complication requiring immediate intervention. Elevated amylase and lipase levels are common in acute pancreatitis but do not directly indicate the need for urgent intervention. A calcium level of 8.5 mg/dL is within the normal range and does not require immediate action in this context.
5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a suspected stroke. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Blood pressure of 160/90 mm Hg.
- B. Blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL.
- C. Difficulty speaking.
- D. Temperature of 99.8°F (37.7°C).
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Difficulty speaking is a classic symptom of a stroke, indicating a potential blockage of blood flow to the brain. Immediate intervention is crucial to minimize brain damage. While an elevated blood pressure (Choice A) may need management, it is not the most urgent concern in this scenario. A blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL (Choice B) is slightly elevated but does not require immediate intervention for a suspected stroke. A temperature of 99.8°F (37.7°C) (Choice D) falls within the normal range and is not a critical finding in this context.
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