HESI RN
Community Health HESI 2023 Quizlet
1. The nurse identifies a client's needs and formulates the nursing problem of 'Imbalance nutrition: Less than body requirements, related to mental impairment and decreased intake, as evidenced by increasing confusion and weight loss of more than 30 pounds over the last 6 months.' Which short-term goal is best for this client?
- A. Eat 50% of six small meals each day by the end of the week.
- B. Gain 5 pounds by the end of the month.
- C. Have increased caloric intake.
- D. Show improved nutritional status.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct short-term goal for the client in this scenario is option A: 'Eat 50% of six small meals each day by the end of the week.' This goal is specific, measurable, and time-bound, which aligns with the SMART criteria for goal setting in nursing care. It addresses the client's nutritional needs directly, focusing on increasing meal frequency to meet body requirements and counteract weight loss. Option B, 'Gain 5 pounds by the end of the month,' is not as suitable as it lacks specificity and a short-term timeline, making it less achievable within the immediate care plan. Option C, 'Have increased caloric intake,' is vague and does not provide a measurable target for the client to work towards. Option D, 'Show improved nutritional status,' is a broad goal that lacks the specificity needed for effective short-term goal setting in nursing care. Therefore, option A is the most appropriate choice for this client's short-term goal.
2. Which bioterrorism agent is at high risk for use as a potential biological weapon that is readily transmitted by several portals of entry?
- A. anthrax
- B. smallpox
- C. botulism
- D. tularemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Anthrax is the correct answer. Anthrax spores can be transmitted through inhalation, ingestion, or skin contact, making it a high-risk agent for bioterrorism. Smallpox, botulism, and tularemia are also potential bioterrorism agents, but they do not have the same versatility in terms of multiple portals of entry, unlike anthrax.
3. A client with a history of asthma is admitted with shortness of breath. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Expiratory wheezes.
- B. Increased respiratory rate.
- C. Absence of breath sounds.
- D. Frequent coughing.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Absence of breath sounds. This finding is concerning in a client with asthma as it may indicate a severe asthma exacerbation, airway obstruction, or pneumothorax, all of which require immediate intervention. Absence of breath sounds suggests a lack of airflow in the lungs, which is a critical sign that should prompt immediate action. Expiratory wheezes (choice A) are common in asthma and may not warrant immediate intervention unless severe. An increased respiratory rate (choice B) is expected in a client with asthma experiencing shortness of breath, but it does not indicate an immediate threat to the airway. Frequent coughing (choice D) is a common symptom in asthma exacerbations but does not signify an immediate need for intervention as it can be managed with appropriate asthma treatments.
4. What is the most important information for a nurse to obtain when an older female client expresses not deserving to eat due to lack of money?
- A. Client's thoughts about wanting to hurt herself
- B. Medication history for antipsychotic agents
- C. Availability of family members to provide meals
- D. Community resources to provide financial aid
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Client's thoughts about wanting to hurt herself. When a client expresses not deserving to eat due to lack of money, it raises concerns about her mental and emotional well-being. Assessing for suicidal ideation is crucial in this situation to ensure the client's immediate safety. Options B, C, and D are not the most critical information to obtain in this scenario. While medication history, family support, and community resources are important aspects of care, in this context, the client's mental health and risk of self-harm take precedence.
5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which laboratory result indicates that the therapy is effective?
- A. International normalized ratio (INR) of 1.0.
- B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds.
- C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 60 seconds.
- D. International normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An International Normalized Ratio (INR) of 2.5 indicates that warfarin therapy is within the therapeutic range for a client with atrial fibrillation. A lower INR (such as 1.0) would suggest subtherapeutic levels, risking blood clots. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) are not specific to monitoring warfarin therapy.
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