Nursing Elites

1. The mother of a newborn infant with hypospadias asks the nurse why circumcision cannot be performed. Which is the most appropriate response by the nurse?

• A. Circumcision will cause an infection.
• B. Circumcision is not performed in a newborn.
• C. Circumcision will cause difficulty with urination.
• D. Circumcision has been delayed to save tissue for surgical repair.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The reason circumcision is not performed in a newborn with hypospadias is that the dorsal foreskin tissue will be needed for the surgical repair of hypospadias. Delaying circumcision allows for the preservation of tissue that will be crucial for the corrective surgery. This surgical repair is typically done within the first year of life to minimize the psychological impact on the child. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not address the specific reason for delaying circumcision in this case.

2. In a pediatric clinic, a nurse is assessing a child recently diagnosed with cystic fibrosis. Which of the following later findings of this disease would the nurse not expect to see at this time?

• A. Positive sweat test
• B. Bulky greasy stools
• C. Moist, productive cough
• D. Meconium ileus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a child newly diagnosed with cystic fibrosis (CF), noisy respirations and a dry, non-productive cough are typically the first respiratory signs to appear. The other options, including a positive sweat test, bulky greasy stools, and meconium ileus, are among the earliest findings of CF. CF is a genetic condition that affects the production of mucus, sweat, saliva, and digestive juices. Due to a defective gene, these secretions become thick and sticky instead of thin and slippery, leading to blockages in various passageways, especially in the pancreas and lungs. Respiratory failure is a severe consequence of CF, making it crucial to monitor respiratory symptoms closely in affected individuals. Therefore, a moist, productive cough would not be an expected finding in a newly diagnosed child with CF.

3. Which pathologic condition is described as 'increased intraocular pressure of the eye'?

• A. Detached Retina
• B. Fovea Centralis
• C. Presbyopia
• D. Glaucoma

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Glaucoma. Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure in the eye, which can lead to optic nerve damage, vision loss, and blindness if left untreated. Detached Retina (A), Fovea Centralis (B), and Presbyopia (C) are not conditions associated with increased intraocular pressure like Glaucoma. Detached Retina is a separation of the retina from its underlying tissue, Fovea Centralis is a part of the retina responsible for sharp central vision, and Presbyopia is an age-related condition affecting near vision due to the loss of flexibility in the eye's lens.

4. Which of the following clients is most appropriate for receiving telemetry?

• A. A client with syncope potentially related to cardiac dysrhythmia
• B. A client with unstable angina
• C. A client with sinus rhythm and PVCs
• D. A client who had a myocardial infarction 6 hours ago

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Telemetry is used to monitor the cardiac rhythms of clients with potentially unstable conditions or those rhythms that affect activities. Clients with syncope potentially related to cardiac dysrhythmia require continuous monitoring to detect any potential life-threatening dysrhythmias. Unstable angina can be monitored in a telemetry unit, but syncope with potential cardiac causes takes precedence. Clients with sinus rhythm and PVCs may not necessitate telemetry unless there are further indications of instability. A client who had a myocardial infarction 6 hours ago is typically monitored in an intensive care unit rather than a telemetry unit.

5. A patient is admitted and complains of gastric pain, fever, and diarrhea. Which assessment finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Abdominal distention
• B. A bruit near the epigastric area
• C. 3 episodes of vomiting in the last hour
• D. Blood pressure of 160/90

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A bruit near the epigastric area may indicate the presence of an aortic aneurysm, which is a life-threatening condition requiring immediate medical attention. Abdominal distention, while concerning, may not be as urgent as a potential aneurysm. Vomiting episodes may suggest underlying issues but do not present an immediate life-threatening situation. A blood pressure of 160/90, though elevated, does not pose the same level of immediate threat as a potential aortic aneurysm.

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