Nursing Elites

1. The patient is being taught about pulmonary function testing (PFT). Which statement made by the patient indicates effective teaching?

• A. I will use my inhaler right before the test.
• B. I won't eat or drink anything 8 hours before the test.
• C. I should inhale deeply and blow out as hard as I can during the test.
• D. My blood pressure and pulse will be checked every 15 minutes after the test.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'I should inhale deeply and blow out as hard as I can during the test.' This statement indicates effective teaching because for PFT, the patient needs to inhale deeply and exhale forcefully. This maneuver helps in assessing lung function accurately. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Using an inhaler right before the test may alter the test results, which is not recommended. Fasting for 8 hours is not necessary for a PFT, and checking blood pressure and pulse every 15 minutes after the test is not part of the PFT procedure.

2. A patient experiences a chest wall contusion as a result of being struck in the chest with a baseball bat. The emergency department nurse would be most concerned if which finding is observed during the initial assessment?

• A. Paradoxic chest movement
• B. Complaint of chest wall pain
• C. Heart rate of 110 beats/minute
• D. Large bruised area on the chest

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Paradoxic chest movement is the most concerning finding as it indicates a potential flail chest, which can lead to severe compromise in gas exchange and rapid hypoxemia. This condition requires immediate attention to prevent respiratory distress. Complaint of chest wall pain, a slightly elevated heart rate, and a large bruised area on the chest are important assessment findings but may not immediately threaten gas exchange or respiratory function. Therefore, identifying paradoxic chest movement is critical for prompt intervention and management.

3. The healthcare provider is caring for a 20 lbs (9 kg) 6-month-old with a 3-day history of diarrhea, occasional vomiting, and fever. Peripheral intravenous therapy has been initiated, with 5% dextrose in 0.33% normal saline with 20 mEq of potassium per liter infusing at 35 ml/hr. Which finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. 3 episodes of vomiting in 1 hour
• B. Periodic crying and irritability
• C. Vigorous sucking on a pacifier
• D. No measurable voiding in 4 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'No measurable voiding in 4 hours.' This finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately. The concern is the possibility of hyperkalemia, which could occur with continued potassium administration and a decrease in urinary output since potassium is excreted via the kidneys. It is crucial to monitor urinary output in pediatric patients receiving potassium-containing IV solutions to prevent electrolyte imbalances and potential complications. Choices A, B, and C are not the most critical findings that require immediate reporting. '3 episodes of vomiting in 1 hour' may suggest a need for antiemetic therapy or further assessment of the underlying cause but does not pose an immediate risk like the potential electrolyte imbalance from decreased urinary output. 'Periodic crying and irritability' and 'Vigorous sucking on a pacifier' are common behaviors in infants and are not indicative of a critical condition that requires urgent attention in this scenario.

4. A patient diagnosed with epilepsy is receiving discharge education from a nurse. Which of the following teachings should be emphasized the most?

• A. Avoid consuming alcohol and drugs
• B. Adhere to follow-up appointments with the neurologist, physician, or other healthcare provider as directed
• C. Continue taking anticonvulsants, even if seizures have ceased
• D. Wear a medical alert bracelet or carry an ID card indicating epilepsy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most critical teaching that the nurse should stress to a patient with epilepsy is to continue taking anticonvulsants even if seizures have stopped. Suddenly stopping antiepileptic drugs can lead to seizures and an increased risk of status epilepticus, a life-threatening condition. Choice A, advising to avoid alcohol and drugs, is important but not as crucial as maintaining anticonvulsant therapy. Choice B, emphasizing follow-up appointments, is essential but ensuring medication compliance is more critical to prevent seizure recurrence. Choice D, wearing a medical alert bracelet, is important for emergency identification but does not directly impact the patient's immediate safety like medication adherence does.

5. A client is in her third month of her first pregnancy. During the interview, she tells the nurse that she has several sex partners and is unsure of the identity of the baby's father. Which of the following nursing interventions is a priority?

• A. Counsel the woman to consent to HIV screening.
• B. Perform tests for sexually transmitted diseases.
• C. Discuss her high risk for cervical cancer.
• D. Refer the client to a family planning clinic.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's disclosure of having multiple sex partners and uncertainty about the baby's father indicates a potential high risk for HIV. Therefore, the priority nursing intervention is to counsel the woman to consent to HIV screening. Early detection of HIV is crucial for initiating timely treatment and improving outcomes. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority in this situation as HIV screening takes precedence over testing for other sexually transmitted diseases, discussing cervical cancer risk, or referring to a family planning clinic.

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