NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Prioritization Questions
1. The patient is being taught about pulmonary function testing (PFT). Which statement made by the patient indicates effective teaching?
- A. I will use my inhaler right before the test.
- B. I won't eat or drink anything 8 hours before the test.
- C. I should inhale deeply and blow out as hard as I can during the test.
- D. My blood pressure and pulse will be checked every 15 minutes after the test.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'I should inhale deeply and blow out as hard as I can during the test.' This statement indicates effective teaching because for PFT, the patient needs to inhale deeply and exhale forcefully. This maneuver helps in assessing lung function accurately. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Using an inhaler right before the test may alter the test results, which is not recommended. Fasting for 8 hours is not necessary for a PFT, and checking blood pressure and pulse every 15 minutes after the test is not part of the PFT procedure.
2. A 34-year-old patient with chronic hepatitis C infection has several medications prescribed. Which medication requires further discussion with the healthcare provider before administration?
- A. Ribavirin (Rebetol, Copegus) 600 mg PO bid
- B. Pegylated ?-interferon (PEG-Intron, Pegasys) SQ weekly
- C. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) 25 mg PO every 4 hours PRN itching
- D. Dimenhydrinate (Dramamine) 50 mg PO every 6 hours PRN nausea
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pegylated ?-interferon (PEG-Intron, Pegasys) SQ weekly. Pegylated ?-interferon is typically administered once weekly, not daily. Therefore, this medication requires further discussion with the healthcare provider before administration to ensure the correct dosing frequency. Ribavirin, choice A, is appropriate for chronic hepatitis C treatment. Choices C and D, Diphenhydramine and Dimenhydrinate, are commonly used for symptomatic relief in patients with hepatitis C and do not require further discussion with the healthcare provider in this context.
3. After repair of an inguinal hernia, the infant is being cared for. Which assessment finding indicates that the surgical repair was effective?
- A. A clean, dry incision
- B. Abdominal distension
- C. An adequate flow of urine
- D. Absence of inguinal swelling with crying
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The absence of inguinal swelling when the infant cries or strains indicates that the surgical repair of the inguinal hernia was effective. Inguinal swelling typically occurs with crying or straining in cases of this condition. A clean, dry incision signifies the absence of wound infection post-surgery but does not directly indicate the effectiveness of the hernia repair. Abdominal distension suggests a gastrointestinal issue unrelated to the hernia repair. An adequate flow of urine is not specific to evaluating the success of inguinal hernia repair.
4. A patient's chart indicates a history of ketoacidosis. Which of the following would you not expect to see with this patient if this condition were acute?
- A. Vomiting
- B. Extreme Thirst
- C. Weight gain
- D. Acetone breath smell
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In acute ketoacidosis, a patient typically experiences rapid weight loss due to the body burning fat and muscle for energy in the absence of sufficient insulin. Therefore, weight gain would not be expected. Vomiting may occur due to the metabolic disturbances associated with ketoacidosis. Extreme thirst is a common symptom as the body tries to compensate for dehydration. Acetone breath smell is a classic sign of ketoacidosis as acetone is one of the ketones produced during this condition.
5. Which of the following types of dressing changes works as a form of wound debridement?
- A. Dry dressing
- B. Transparent dressing
- C. Composite dressing
- D. Wet to dry dressing
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Wet to dry dressing.' Wet to dry dressing is a method of wound debridement that involves applying sterile soaked gauze to the wound, allowing it to dry and stick to the wound. When the dressing is removed, it pulls away drainage and debris, aiding in wound debridement. Choice A, 'Dry dressing,' does not actively assist in debridement as it does not collect or remove debris from the wound. Choice B, 'Transparent dressing,' is primarily used for maintaining a moist environment and wound observation, not for debridement. Choice C, 'Composite dressing,' combines multiple layers for different wound care purposes but is not specifically designed for debridement like wet to dry dressing.
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