Nursing Elites

1. The patient is being taught about pulmonary function testing (PFT). Which statement made by the patient indicates effective teaching?

• A. I will use my inhaler right before the test.
• B. I won't eat or drink anything 8 hours before the test.
• C. I should inhale deeply and blow out as hard as I can during the test.
• D. My blood pressure and pulse will be checked every 15 minutes after the test.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'I should inhale deeply and blow out as hard as I can during the test.' This statement indicates effective teaching because for PFT, the patient needs to inhale deeply and exhale forcefully. This maneuver helps in assessing lung function accurately. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Using an inhaler right before the test may alter the test results, which is not recommended. Fasting for 8 hours is not necessary for a PFT, and checking blood pressure and pulse every 15 minutes after the test is not part of the PFT procedure.

2. A client presents with symptoms of a sore throat, swollen lymph nodes in the neck, fever, chills, and extreme fatigue. Based on these symptoms, which of the following illnesses could the nurse consider for this client?

• A. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
• B. Hepatitis B
• C. Infectious mononucleosis
• D. Norovirus infection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Infectious mononucleosis is a viral disease caused by the Epstein-Barr virus. The symptoms of sore throat, fever, chills, swollen lymph nodes, and extreme fatigue are characteristic of infectious mononucleosis. The diagnosis is confirmed through the client's history and blood tests for the Epstein-Barr virus. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) presents with localized skin infections, not the systemic symptoms described. Hepatitis B typically presents with jaundice, abdominal pain, and liver inflammation, not the symptoms described. Norovirus infection commonly causes gastrointestinal symptoms like vomiting and diarrhea, not the symptoms presented by the client.

3. A client with asthma has low-pitched wheezes present in the final half of exhalation. One hour later, the client has high-pitched wheezes extending throughout exhalation. This change in assessment indicates to the nurse that the client:

• A. Has increased airway obstruction.
• B. Has improved airway obstruction.
• C. Needs to be suctioned.
• D. Exhibits hyperventilation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The change from low-pitched wheezes to high-pitched wheezes indicates a shift from larger to smaller airway obstruction, suggesting increased narrowing of the airways. This change signifies a progression or worsening of the airway obstruction. The absence of evidence of secretions does not support the need for suctioning. Hyperventilation is characterized by rapid and deep breathing, which is not indicated by the information provided in the question.

4. Following a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) in their 6-year-old child, the parent remarks, 'We just don't know how he caught the disease!' The nurse's response is based on an understanding that

• A. AGN is a streptococcal infection that involves the kidney tubules
• B. The disease is easily transmissible in schools and camps
• C. The illness is usually associated with chronic respiratory infections
• D. It is not 'caught' but is a response to a previous B-hemolytic strep infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) is generally considered an immune-complex disease in response to a previous B-hemolytic streptococcal infection, typically occurring 4 to 6 weeks prior. It is not an infectious disease but a noninfectious renal condition. Therefore, the parent's belief that the child 'caught' the disease is inaccurate. Choice A is incorrect because AGN is not a direct streptococcal infection involving the kidney tubules but an immune response to a prior streptococcal infection. Choice B is incorrect as AGN is not easily transmissible in schools and camps. Choice C is incorrect as AGN is not usually associated with chronic respiratory infections but with a previous streptococcal infection.

5. An 80-year-old patient is admitted with dyspnea, dependent edema, rales, and distended neck veins. As the nurse monitors the patient, he becomes increasingly short of breath and begins to have cardiac dysrhythmias. The most critical intervention for this patient is to:

• A. Ensure his airway is open and unobstructed.
• B. Apply oxygen to maintain his oxygen saturation above 94%.
• C. Administer Dobutamine to increase cardiac output.
• D. Start an IV for monitoring fluid intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient presenting with dyspnea, dependent edema, rales, distended neck veins, and developing cardiac dysrhythmias, the priority intervention is to ensure the airway is open and unobstructed. Maintaining an open airway is crucial for adequate ventilation and oxygenation, especially in a patient showing signs of impending respiratory distress and cardiac compromise. While applying oxygen to maintain oxygen saturation is important, ensuring airway patency takes precedence as it directly impacts the patient's ability to breathe. Administering Dobutamine may be necessary to improve cardiac output; however, addressing the airway first is essential to prevent further respiratory distress and worsening dysrhythmias. Starting an IV for monitoring fluid intake is not the most critical intervention in this scenario compared to ensuring airway patency and oxygenation.

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