Nursing Elites

1. A 33-year-old male client with heart failure has been taking furosemide for the past week. Which of the following assessment cues below may indicate the client is experiencing a negative side effect from the medication?

• A. Weight gain of 5 pounds
• B. Edema of the ankles
• C. Gastric irritability
• D. Decreased appetite

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Decreased appetite.' Furosemide is a loop diuretic used for conditions like heart failure, where it helps reduce fluid retention. One common side effect of furosemide is hypokalemia, which can lead to decreased appetite among other symptoms. Hypokalemia is a low level of potassium in the blood, and its signs and symptoms include anorexia, fatigue, nausea, decreased GI motility, muscle weakness, dysrhythmias, reduced urine osmolality, and altered level of consciousness. Weight gain and ankle edema are actually expected outcomes of furosemide therapy due to its diuretic effect, which helps reduce edema and fluid overload. Gastric irritability is a nonspecific symptom that is not typically associated with furosemide use. Therefore, a decreased appetite is a key indicator of a potential negative side effect when assessing a client on furosemide therapy.

2. The nurse is caring for a patient in the ICU who has had a spinal cord injury. She observes that his last blood pressure was 100/55, and his pulse is 48. These have both trended downwards from the baseline. What should the nurse expect to be the next course of action ordered by the physician?

• A. Assess the patient for decreased level of consciousness
• B. Administer Normal Saline
• C. Insert an NG Tube
• D. Connect and read an EKG

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient is entering neurogenic shock due to the spinal cord injury, leading to hypotension and bradycardia. Administering Normal Saline is essential to replace fluid volume, which can help in treating the hypotension and bradycardia symptomatically. This intervention aims to stabilize the patient's cardiovascular status. Assessing for decreased level of consciousness (Choice A) may be important but addressing the hemodynamic instability takes precedence. Inserting an NG Tube (Choice C) and connecting and reading an EKG (Choice D) are not the immediate actions required for the presenting symptoms of hypotension and bradycardia.

3. When orally administering alendronate (Fosamax), a bisphosphonate drug, to a largely bed-bound patient being treated for osteoporosis, what is the most important nursing consideration?

• A. Sit the head of the bed up for 30 minutes after administration
• B. Give the patient a small amount of water to drink
• C. Feed the patient soon, at most 10 minutes after administration
• D. Assess the patient for back pain or abdominal pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct nursing consideration when administering bisphosphonates like alendronate is to sit the head of the bed up for 30 minutes after administration. Bisphosphonates are known to cause esophageal irritation, which can lead to esophagitis. By sitting upright, the patient reduces the time the medication spends in the esophagus, decreasing the risk of irritation and potential adverse effects. Giving the patient water to drink or feeding them immediately after administration can increase the risk of esophageal irritation. Assessing the patient for back pain or abdominal pain is important but not the most critical consideration during drug administration.

4. A patient with a possible pulmonary embolism complains of chest pain and difficulty breathing. The nurse finds a heart rate of 142 beats/minute, blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg, and respirations of 42 breaths/minute. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer anticoagulant drug therapy.
• B. Notify the patient's healthcare provider.
• C. Prepare the patient for a spiral computed tomography (CT).
• D. Elevate the head of the bed to a semi-Fowler's position.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The patient presents with symptoms indicative of a pulmonary embolism (PE), such as chest pain, difficulty breathing, tachycardia, hypotension, and tachypnea. Elevating the head of the bed to a semi-Fowler's position is the priority to improve ventilation and gas exchange. This intervention should be initiated promptly to optimize oxygenation. Subsequent actions, such as notifying the healthcare provider, preparing for a spiral CT scan, and administering anticoagulant therapy, can follow after the patient's position is adjusted. The spiral CT scan is typically used to confirm the diagnosis of PE, and anticoagulant therapy is initiated upon confirmation of the diagnosis by the healthcare provider. Therefore, the immediate focus is on improving the patient's respiratory status by elevating the head of the bed.

5. Mr. C is brought to the hospital with severe burns over 45% of his body. His heart rate is 124 bpm and thready, BP 84/46, respirations 24/minute and shallow. He is apprehensive and restless. Which of the following types of shock is Mr. C at highest risk for?

• A. Septic shock
• B. Hypovolemic shock
• C. Neurogenic shock
• D. Cardiogenic shock

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Mr. C, who has severe burns over 45% of his body, is at highest risk for hypovolemic shock. Burns lead to a loss of plasma volume, reducing the circulating fluid volume and impairing perfusion to vital organs and extremities. In this scenario, the signs of shock, such as increased heart rate, low blood pressure, shallow respirations, and restlessness, indicate a state of hypovolemic shock due to significant fluid loss. Septic shock (choice A) is primarily caused by severe infections, neurogenic shock (choice C) results from spinal cord injuries, and cardiogenic shock (choice D) stems from heart failure. However, in this case, the presentation aligns most closely with hypovolemic shock due to the extensive burn injury and its effects on fluid volume and perfusion.

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