Nursing Elites

1. The mother of a 9-month-old girl provides the practical nurse with information about her daughter's diet. Which statement by the mother may indicate why the infant has been diagnosed with iron-deficiency anemia?

• A. She almost never drinks sugary water.
• B. She has been on whole milk for 7 months.
• C. She likes to chew on bread as a snack.
• D. She doesn't like to eat peaches or pears.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Infants should not be given cow's milk before 1 year of age as it can interfere with iron absorption and lead to anemia. Choice A is incorrect as avoiding sugary water is actually a good practice. Choice C is unrelated to iron-deficiency anemia. Choice D, not liking peaches or pears, is also not directly related to iron-deficiency anemia.

2. When should a mother introduce solid foods to her infant? The mother of a 4-month-old baby girl asks the nurse when she should introduce solid foods to her infant. The mother states, 'My mother says I should put rice cereal in the baby’s bottle now.' The nurse should instruct the mother to introduce solid foods when her child exhibits which behavior?

• A. Stops rooting when hungry
• B. Opens mouth when food comes her way
• C. Awakens once for nighttime feedings
• D. Gives up a bottle for a cup

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B: Opens mouth when food comes her way.' Readiness for solid foods is indicated by the infant showing interest in food and being able to sit up with support. This behavior demonstrates the infant's readiness to start introducing solid foods in their diet. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because stopping rooting when hungry, awakening once for nighttime feedings, and giving up a bottle for a cup are not indicators of readiness for solid foods in infants.

3. A child with a fever of 39°C (102.2°F) and a sore throat is brought to the clinic. The practical nurse suspects the child has streptococcal pharyngitis. Which diagnostic test should the practical nurse prepare the child for?

• A. Rapid antigen detection test.
• B. Throat culture.
• C. Complete blood count (CBC).
• D. Chest X-ray.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A rapid antigen detection test is the appropriate diagnostic test for suspected streptococcal pharyngitis. This test is commonly used due to its quick results, helping in the prompt diagnosis and appropriate treatment of the condition. It specifically detects the presence of streptococcal antigens in the throat, aiding in confirming the diagnosis and guiding the healthcare provider in determining the most suitable treatment plan. Throat culture (Choice B) is a confirmatory test but is not as rapid as the rapid antigen detection test. Complete blood count (Choice C) and Chest X-ray (Choice D) are not specific tests for streptococcal pharyngitis and would not aid in confirming the diagnosis.

4. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarction of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?

• A. The aortic semilunar valve obstructs blood flow into the systemic circulation
• B. The lumen of the aorta reduces the volume of the blood flow to the lower extremities
• C. The pulmonic valve prevents adequate blood volume into the pulmonary circulation
• D. An opening in the atrial septum causes a murmur due to a turbulent left-to-right shunt

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Coarctation of the aorta causes narrowing of the aorta, reducing blood flow to the lower extremities. This narrowing results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, along with stronger brachial pulses and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanism of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically leads to reduced blood flow to the lower extremities.

5. A 15-year-old client with type 1 diabetes presents to the clinic for a routine follow-up. The nurse notes that the client’s hemoglobin A1c is 10%. What should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Increase the frequency of self-monitoring of blood glucose.
• B. Discuss dietary changes to reduce carbohydrate intake.
• C. Review the client’s insulin administration technique.
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A hemoglobin A1c of 10% indicates poor blood glucose control, reflecting an average blood sugar level over the past 2-3 months. To improve control, the plan of care should be comprehensive. Increasing the frequency of self-monitoring of blood glucose helps track changes in blood sugar levels. Discussing dietary changes to reduce carbohydrate intake can aid in better blood sugar management. Reviewing the client’s insulin administration technique ensures proper medication dosing. Therefore, all the options (increasing monitoring, discussing dietary changes, and reviewing insulin administration) are essential components of the plan of care to address the client's poor blood glucose control. The correct answer is D because all these interventions are crucial for managing the client's condition effectively. Choices A, B, and C individually address different aspects of diabetes management and are all necessary in this scenario.

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