the charge nurse is planning assignments on a medical unit which client should be assigned to the pn
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone

1. The charge nurse is planning assignments on a medical unit. Which client should be assigned to the PN?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Irrigating and redressing a leg wound is a common task within the PN's scope of practice, making this assignment appropriate. Tasks like testing stool specimens for occult blood and assisting with ambulation of a client with a chest tube may require a higher level of training and assessment, typically performed by RNs. Admitting a client from the emergency room involves a comprehensive assessment and decision-making process, which is usually within the RN's responsibility.

2. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) reports frequent heartburn. What dietary modification should the nurse recommend?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to recommend avoiding eating large meals late at night. This dietary modification can help reduce the risk of acid reflux, which can exacerbate GERD symptoms. Consuming smaller, more frequent meals is generally recommended to minimize pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter. Choice B is incorrect because a high-fat diet can worsen GERD symptoms by delaying stomach emptying. Choice C is incorrect because reducing fluid intake can lead to dehydration and will not prevent acid reflux. Choice D is incorrect because spicy foods can actually trigger or worsen acid reflux symptoms in individuals with GERD.

3. During an initial assessment, a healthcare provider notes that a client has elevated blood pressure. Which of the following findings is considered a major risk factor for coronary artery disease?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated blood pressure is a significant risk factor for coronary artery disease because it increases the strain on the arteries, leading to potential damage and a higher risk of developing coronary artery disease. Elevated HDL cholesterol (Choice A) is actually considered beneficial as it helps reduce the risk of heart disease. Low LDL cholesterol (Choice B) is also beneficial as high levels of LDL are associated with an increased risk of coronary artery disease. Low triglyceride levels (Choice D) are not typically considered a major risk factor for coronary artery disease.

4. The nurse is providing care for a client with schizophrenia who receives haloperidol decanoate 75 mg IM every 4 weeks. The client begins developing puckering and smacking of the lips and facial grimacing. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: These symptoms are characteristic of tardive dyskinesia, a side effect of long-term antipsychotic use. The nurse should assess the severity of these movements using the AIMS scale and report to the healthcare provider for further management. Discontinuing the medication abruptly (Choice A) can lead to withdrawal symptoms and worsening of the condition. Increasing the dose of haloperidol (Choice B) can exacerbate the symptoms of tardive dyskinesia. Monitoring for signs of agitation (Choice D) is important but does not address the specific side effect described.

5. The nurse has been teaching a client with congestive heart failure about proper nutrition. The selection of which lunch indicates the client has learned about sodium restriction?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A sliced turkey sandwich and canned pineapple are good choices for a client with congestive heart failure who is learning about sodium restriction. Turkey is generally lower in sodium compared to cheese, and canned fruits like pineapple typically have lower sodium content. Choices A, C, and D are less suitable as they contain higher levels of sodium, such as cheese, cheeseburger, baked potato, mushroom pizza, and ice cream, which are not ideal for a client needing to restrict sodium intake.

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