NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. Renal failure is broadly divided into specific categories. Which type is the type II diabetic patient most likely to experience secondary to diabetes?
- A. Acute renal failure (ARF)
- B. Intermittent renal failure (IRF)
- C. Chronic renal failure (CRF)
- D. Reversible renal failure (RRF)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Diabetic nephropathy is a common complication in type II diabetic patients, leading to chronic renal failure (CRF). Chronic renal failure (CRF) and acute renal failure (ARF) are the two main categories of renal failure. CRF can result from various conditions including diabetic nephropathy, chronic glomerulonephritis, chronic pyelonephritis, polycystic kidney disease, connective tissue disorders, and amyloidosis. Unlike acute renal failure, chronic renal failure is irreversible. Timely treatment of ARF can often lead to reversibility, but CRF may require renal replacement therapy (RRT) or kidney transplant. Therefore, the correct answer is chronic renal failure (CRF). Intermittent renal failure (IRF) and reversible renal failure (RRF) are not recognized medical terms for distinct types of renal failure, making choices B and D incorrect.
2. An infant weighed 7 pounds 8 ounces at birth. If growth occurs at a normal rate, what would be the expected weight at 6 months of age?
- A. Double the birth weight
- B. Triple the birth weight
- C. Gain 6 ounces each week
- D. Add 2 pounds each month
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Infants typically double their birth weight by 6 months of age as part of normal growth and development. This doubling of weight is a common milestone used by healthcare providers to assess a baby's growth progress. Tripling the birth weight or adding 2 pounds each month would result in excessive weight gain, which is not typical or healthy for an infant. Similarly, gaining 6 ounces each week would also lead to rapid and abnormal weight gain, making it an incorrect choice.
3. The nurse is preparing to care for a child with a diagnosis of intussusception. The nurse reviews the child's record and expects to note which sign of this disorder documented?
- A. Watery diarrhea
- B. Ribbon-like stools
- C. Profuse projectile vomiting
- D. Bright red blood and mucus in the stools
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Intussusception is a condition where a part of the bowel slides into the next section, causing an obstruction. The classic presentation includes severe abdominal pain that is crampy, intermittent, and may cause the child to draw knees to the chest. While vomiting can occur, it is not typically projectile in nature. A key hallmark of intussusception is the passage of bright red blood and mucus in the stools, often described as currant jelly-like. Watery diarrhea and ribbon-like stools are not typical signs of intussusception and should not be expected in a child with this condition.
4. A client asks the nurse about including her 2 and 12-year-old sons in the care of their newborn sister. Which of the following is an appropriate initial statement by the nurse?
- A. Focus on your sons' needs during the first days at home.
- B. Tell each child what he can do to help with the baby.
- C. Suggest that your husband spend more time with the boys.
- D. Ask the children what they would like to do for the newborn.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: It is essential for the nurse to guide the client on the initial steps in involving her 2 and 12-year-old sons in the care of their newborn sister. The most appropriate response is to 'Focus on your sons' needs during the first days at home.' In an expanded family, parents should prioritize reassuring older children that they are loved and as important as the newborn. This response acknowledges the importance of ensuring the well-being and emotional adjustment of the older siblings during the transition period. Choices B, C, and D are less appropriate as they do not directly address the emotional needs and adjustment of the older children during this significant family change.
5. A client is scheduled for a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA). The nurse knows that a PTCA is:
- A. Surgical repair of a diseased coronary artery
- B. Placement of an automatic internal cardiac defibrillator
- C. Procedure that compresses plaque against the wall of the diseased coronary artery to improve blood flow
- D. Non-invasive radiographic examination of the heart
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) is a procedure that compresses plaque against the wall of the diseased coronary artery to improve blood flow. It is performed during a cardiac catheterization to improve coronary artery blood flow in a diseased artery. Surgical repair of a diseased coronary artery is typically done through procedures like aorto-coronary bypass graft (ACBG) rather than PTCA. Placement of an automatic internal cardiac defibrillator (AICD) is a different procedure used for managing cardiac arrhythmias. Non-invasive radiographic examination of the heart refers to procedures like echocardiography or cardiac MRI, not PTCA.
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