Nursing Elites

1. Renal failure is broadly divided into specific categories. Which type is the type II diabetic patient most likely to experience secondary to diabetes?

• A. Acute renal failure (ARF)
• B. Intermittent renal failure (IRF)
• C. Chronic renal failure (CRF)
• D. Reversible renal failure (RRF)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Diabetic nephropathy is a common complication in type II diabetic patients, leading to chronic renal failure (CRF). Chronic renal failure (CRF) and acute renal failure (ARF) are the two main categories of renal failure. CRF can result from various conditions including diabetic nephropathy, chronic glomerulonephritis, chronic pyelonephritis, polycystic kidney disease, connective tissue disorders, and amyloidosis. Unlike acute renal failure, chronic renal failure is irreversible. Timely treatment of ARF can often lead to reversibility, but CRF may require renal replacement therapy (RRT) or kidney transplant. Therefore, the correct answer is chronic renal failure (CRF). Intermittent renal failure (IRF) and reversible renal failure (RRF) are not recognized medical terms for distinct types of renal failure, making choices B and D incorrect.

2. A 67-year-old male patient with acute pancreatitis has a nasogastric (NG) tube to suction and is NPO. Which information obtained by the nurse indicates that these therapies have been effective?

• A. Bowel sounds are present.
• B. Grey Turner sign resolves.
• C. Electrolyte levels are normal.
• D. Abdominal pain is decreased.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Abdominal pain is decreased.' In a patient with acute pancreatitis, the goal of using an NG tube for suction and keeping the patient NPO is to decrease the release of pancreatic enzymes and alleviate pain. Therefore, a decrease in abdominal pain would indicate the effectiveness of these therapies. Bowel sounds being present do not necessarily indicate treatment effectiveness, as they can still be present even if the therapies are not fully effective. Normal electrolyte levels are important but do not directly reflect the efficacy of NG suction and NPO status. The resolution of Grey Turner sign, a bruising over the flanks associated with pancreatitis, is a late and non-specific finding and waiting for it to resolve is not a reliable indicator of treatment effectiveness.

3. A 34-year-old patient with chronic hepatitis C infection has several medications prescribed. Which medication requires further discussion with the healthcare provider before administration?

• A. Ribavirin (Rebetol, Copegus) 600 mg PO bid
• B. Pegylated ?-interferon (PEG-Intron, Pegasys) SQ weekly
• C. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) 25 mg PO every 4 hours PRN itching
• D. Dimenhydrinate (Dramamine) 50 mg PO every 6 hours PRN nausea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pegylated ?-interferon (PEG-Intron, Pegasys) SQ weekly. Pegylated ?-interferon is typically administered once weekly, not daily. Therefore, this medication requires further discussion with the healthcare provider before administration to ensure the correct dosing frequency. Ribavirin, choice A, is appropriate for chronic hepatitis C treatment. Choices C and D, Diphenhydramine and Dimenhydrinate, are commonly used for symptomatic relief in patients with hepatitis C and do not require further discussion with the healthcare provider in this context.

4. The nurse analyzes the results of a patient's arterial blood gases (ABGs). Which finding would require immediate action?

• A. The bicarbonate level (HCO3) is 31 mEq/L
• B. The arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) is 92%
• C. The partial pressure of CO2 in arterial blood (PaCO2) is 31 mm Hg
• D. The partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood (PaO2) is 59 mm Hg

Correct answer: D

Rationale: While all the values are abnormal, the low PaO2 level of 59 mm Hg indicates that the patient is at a critical point on the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve. At this level, a small decrease in PaO2 can lead to a significant drop in oxygen saturation and compromise tissue oxygenation. Therefore, immediate intervention is necessary to improve the patient's oxygenation status. Choice A (HCO3 of 31 mEq/L) may indicate metabolic alkalosis or compensation for respiratory acidosis; however, it does not require immediate action in this scenario. Choice B (SaO2 of 92%) is slightly low but not critically low to require immediate action. Choice C (PaCO2 of 31 mm Hg) is within the normal range and does not indicate immediate danger to the patient.

5. A patient is found unconscious in their room with rhythmic jerking of all four extremities and heavy foaming at the mouth. The patient was on seizure precautions with bedrails up and padded. What is the priority action for the nurse to take?

• A. Administer Lorazepam (Ativan)
• B. Turn the patient to his/her side
• C. Call the physician
• D. Suction the patient

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse's priority action should be to turn the patient to his/her side. This position helps maintain an open airway and prevents aspiration of secretions or vomitus. Administering Lorazepam (Ativan) without ensuring a clear airway could lead to further complications. Calling the physician is important, but immediate interventions to protect the airway take precedence. Suctioning the patient may be necessary but should not be the initial action; positioning for airway protection is the priority.

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