Nursing Elites

1. The nurse palpates the posterior chest while the patient says 99 and notes absent fremitus. What action should the nurse take next?

• A. Auscultate anterior and posterior breath sounds bilaterally
• B. Encourage the patient to turn, cough, and deep breathe
• C. Review the chest x-ray report for evidence of pneumonia
• D. Palpate the anterior chest and observe for barrel chest

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To assess for tactile fremitus, the nurse should use the palms of the hands to assess for vibration when the patient repeats a word or phrase such as '99'. After noting absent fremitus, the nurse should then auscultate the lungs to assess for the presence or absence of breath sounds. Absent fremitus may be noted with conditions like pneumothorax or atelectasis. The vibration is increased in conditions such as pneumonia, lung tumors, thick bronchial secretions, and pleural effusion. Encouraging the patient to turn, cough, and deep breathe is an appropriate intervention for atelectasis, but assessing breath sounds takes priority. Fremitus is decreased if the hand is farther from the lung or the lung is hyperinflated (barrel chest). Palpating the anterior chest for fremitus is less effective due to the presence of large muscles and breast tissue, making auscultation a more appropriate next step.

2. A 33-year-old male client with heart failure has been taking furosemide for the past week. Which of the following assessment cues below may indicate the client is experiencing a negative side effect from the medication?

• A. Weight gain of 5 pounds
• B. Edema of the ankles
• C. Gastric irritability
• D. Decreased appetite

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Decreased appetite.' Furosemide is a loop diuretic used for conditions like heart failure, where it helps reduce fluid retention. One common side effect of furosemide is hypokalemia, which can lead to decreased appetite among other symptoms. Hypokalemia is a low level of potassium in the blood, and its signs and symptoms include anorexia, fatigue, nausea, decreased GI motility, muscle weakness, dysrhythmias, reduced urine osmolality, and altered level of consciousness. Weight gain and ankle edema are actually expected outcomes of furosemide therapy due to its diuretic effect, which helps reduce edema and fluid overload. Gastric irritability is a nonspecific symptom that is not typically associated with furosemide use. Therefore, a decreased appetite is a key indicator of a potential negative side effect when assessing a client on furosemide therapy.

3. Which of the following interventions should the nurse use when working with a Jackson-Pratt drain?

• A. Strip the tubing to remove clots by milking the tubing back toward the client
• B. Empty the drain when the amount of fluid reaches 25 cc
• C. Strip the tubing to remove clots by milking the tubing away from the client
• D. Maintain the level of the drain above the client's incision

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A Jackson-Pratt drain is a type of active wound drain that may be placed following a surgical procedure. This drain actively draws excess blood and fluid out of the wound. If clots develop within the tubing, the nurse should strip the tubing by milking it in a direction away from the client. This action helps to ensure the drain remains patent and effective. Option A is incorrect because the tubing should be milked away from the client, not towards. Option B is incorrect as the drain should be emptied based on the healthcare provider's orders, not at a fixed volume. Option D is incorrect because the level of the drain should be below the level of the incision to allow drainage by gravity.

4. A patient is suspected to have sustained a spinal cord injury. What best describes the overarching principles used to guide the care for this type of condition?

• A. Immobilize the cervical area to prevent further injury
• B. Monitor the patient's level of consciousness to prevent neurologic deterioration
• C. Help the patient with activities of daily living and provide emotional and physical support to help them adjust to their injury
• D. Facilitate tissue perfusion to the spinal cord while maintaining airway and breathing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to facilitate tissue perfusion to the spinal cord while maintaining airway and breathing. In the acute phase of a spinal cord injury, ensuring proper tissue perfusion to the spinal cord is crucial to prevent further damage. Maintaining airway, breathing, and circulation is essential in guiding the overall care for a patient with a spinal cord injury. Choices A, B, and C, while important in certain aspects of care, are not the overarching principles that guide the immediate management of a suspected spinal cord injury.

5. A patient with newly diagnosed lung cancer tells the nurse, 'I don't think I'm going to live to see my next birthday.' Which response by the nurse is best?

• A. Would you like to talk to the hospital chaplain about your feelings?
• B. Can you tell me what it is that makes you think you will die so soon?
• C. Are you afraid that the treatment for your cancer will not be effective?
• D. Do you think that taking an antidepressant medication would be helpful?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse's initial response should be to collect more assessment data about the patient's statement. The answer beginning 'Can you tell me what it is' is the most open-ended question and will offer the best opportunity for obtaining more data. The answer beginning 'Are you afraid' implies that the patient thinks that the cancer will be immediately fatal, although the patient's statement may not be related to the cancer diagnosis. The remaining two answers offer interventions that may be helpful to the patient, but more assessment is needed to determine whether these interventions are appropriate.

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