Nursing Elites

1. One major difference between long term care and respite centers is the fact that long term care facilities:

• A. provide both physical and emotional care on an ongoing basis, while respite centers offer only temporary services.
• B. provide care for residents on a long-term basis, while respite centers offer only outpatient services.
• C. provide care for residents on a long-term basis, while respite centers offer only temporary services.
• D. There is no difference. Long-term care and respite care are the same.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The major difference between long-term care and respite centers is that long-term care facilities provide both physical and emotional care on an ongoing, long-term basis. This continuous care is essential for residents who require extended assistance. In contrast, respite centers offer temporary services, providing similar care but for a short-term duration. These short-term services are designed to give family caregivers a break from their daily responsibilities. Choice A is incorrect because both long-term care and respite centers can offer both physical and emotional care, but the key distinction lies in the duration of care provided. Choice B is incorrect as respite centers do not typically offer outpatient services, and the focus is on temporary relief rather than long-term care. Choice D is incorrect as the question clearly highlights a major difference between long-term care and respite centers.

2. Which theory reflects the view that illness is caused by an imbalance or disharmony in the forces of nature?

• A. Germ theory
• B. Naturalistic theory
• C. Magicoreligious theory
• D. Biomedical or scientific theory

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The naturalistic theory posits that illness results from an imbalance or disharmony in the forces of nature. According to this theory, maintaining a natural balance or harmony is essential to prevent illness. Conversely, germ theory and biomedical or scientific theory attribute illness to microorganisms, while magicoreligious theory attributes illness to supernatural forces such as deities or spirits. Therefore, the most appropriate theory reflecting the belief that illness arises from a disruption in natural forces is the naturalistic theory.

3. When educating a client about their new prescription for warfarin, what should the nurse advise?

• A. To have his white blood cell count tested once a month
• B. To avoid any activities that could lead to injury
• C. To avoid eating leafy green vegetables
• D. Both A and B

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to avoid any activities that could lead to injury when taking warfarin. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that decreases blood clotting, increasing the risk of bleeding. Engaging in activities that may result in injury can lead to uncontrolled bleeding, which can be serious. While monitoring white blood cell count is not specifically related to warfarin therapy, avoiding leafy green vegetables is important due to their vitamin K content, which can interfere with warfarin's effectiveness. Therefore, the client should be educated to avoid activities that could cause injury to prevent potential bleeding complications.

4. Why should a palpated pressure be performed before auscultating blood pressure?

• A. To more clearly hear the Korotkoff sounds.
• B. To detect the presence of an auscultatory gap.
• C. To avoid missing a falsely elevated blood pressure.
• D. To more readily identify phase IV of the Korotkoff sounds.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Performing a palpated pressure before auscultating blood pressure helps in detecting the presence of an auscultatory gap. An auscultatory gap is a period during blood pressure measurement when Korotkoff sounds temporarily disappear before reappearing. Inflation of the cuff 20 to 30 mm Hg beyond the point where a palpated pulse disappears helps in identifying this gap. This technique ensures accurate blood pressure measurement by preventing the underestimation of blood pressure values. The other options are incorrect because palpating the pressure is not primarily done to hear Korotkoff sounds more clearly, avoid missing falsely elevated blood pressure, or readily identify a specific phase of Korotkoff sounds.

5. When performing CPR, at what rate should chest compressions be applied?

• A. 100 per minute
• B. 60 per minute
• C. As quickly as possible
• D. 200 per minute

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During CPR, chest compressions should be applied at a rate of 100 compressions per minute in order to effectively circulate blood and oxygen to vital organs. Option A, '100 per minute,' is the correct answer as it aligns with the recommended compression rate in CPR guidelines. Option B, '60 per minute,' is incorrect as it is too slow and may not provide adequate circulation. Option C, 'As quickly as possible,' is vague and does not specify the recommended compression rate. Option D, '200 per minute,' is incorrect as it exceeds the recommended rate and may not be as effective in maintaining perfusion.

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