Nursing Elites

1. While auscultating heart sounds, the nurse hears a murmur. Which of these instruments would be used to assess this murmur?

• A. Electrocardiogram
• B. Bell of the stethoscope
• C. Diaphragm of the stethoscope
• D. Palpation with the nurse's palm of the hand

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instrument to assess a murmur while auscultating heart sounds is the bell of the stethoscope. An electrocardiogram is used to measure the heart's electrical activity, not to assess murmurs. Palpation with the nurse's palm of the hand is a method to assess pulses or textures, not heart murmurs. The diaphragm of the stethoscope is typically used for high-pitched sounds like breath, bowel, and normal heart sounds, whereas the bell is more suitable for soft, low-pitched sounds such as murmurs or extra heart sounds.

2. Patients who cannot move in their bed on their own should be turned at least ________________.

• A. once a day
• B. twice a day
• C. every 2 hours
• D. every 4 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients who are unable to move in bed are at high risk of developing pressure ulcers and skin breakdown due to prolonged pressure on specific body areas. Turning these patients at least every 2 hours is crucial to relieve pressure, improve circulation, and prevent skin damage. More frequent turning may be necessary for patients with specific needs, such as those who are incontinent of urine and require additional care. Turning patients less frequently, such as once a day, twice a day, or every 4 hours, increases the risk of developing pressure ulcers and other complications. Therefore, the correct answer is to turn patients who cannot move in their bed on their own every 2 hours.

3. During change-of-shift report, the nurse learns about the following four patients. Which patient requires assessment first?

• A. 40-year-old with chronic pancreatitis who has gnawing abdominal pain
• B. 58-year-old who has compensated cirrhosis and is complaining of anorexia
• C. 55-year-old with cirrhosis and ascites who has an oral temperature of 102�F (38.8�C)
• D. 36-year-old recovering from a laparoscopic cholecystectomy who has severe shoulder pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When prioritizing patient assessments, the nurse should address the patient with cirrhosis and ascites who has an elevated oral temperature of 102�F (38.8�C) first. This presentation suggests a potential infection, which is critical to address promptly in a patient with liver disease. An infection in a patient with cirrhosis can quickly progress to severe complications. The other options, such as chronic pancreatitis with abdominal pain, compensated cirrhosis with anorexia, and post-laparoscopic cholecystectomy with shoulder pain, do not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation requiring urgent assessment compared to a possible infection in a patient with cirrhosis and ascites.

4. What would be an appropriate evaluation statement for the nurse to write based on the client's ability to state only two signs of impaired circulation out of three as expected?

• A. Client understands the signs of impaired circulation
• B. Goal met: Client cited numbness and tingling as a sign of impaired circulation
• C. Goal not met: Client able to name only two signs of impaired circulation
• D. Goal not met: Client unable to describe signs of impaired circulation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The appropriate evaluation statement for the nurse to write would be 'Goal not met: Client able to name only two signs of impaired circulation.' In this scenario, the client has only identified two out of the three signs of impaired circulation specified in the desired outcome. Therefore, the goal has not been fully achieved. It is essential in nursing practice to assess and document client progress accurately. While the client has shown some understanding by correctly identifying numbness and tingling as signs of impaired circulation, the inability to state the third sign indicates an incomplete achievement of the goal. This evaluation helps guide further interventions or educational strategies to help the client meet the desired outcome in the care plan.

5. Which of the following actions is most appropriate for reducing the risk of infection during the post-operative period?

• A. Flush the central line with heparin at least every four hours
• B. Administer narcotic analgesics as needed
• C. Remove the urinary catheter as soon as the client is ambulatory
• D. Order a high-protein diet for the client

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate action to reduce the risk of infection during the post-operative period is to remove the urinary catheter as soon as the client is ambulatory. Urinary catheters can serve as a source of bacteria, increasing the risk of infection in the bladder or urethra. By removing the catheter promptly once the client is mobile, the risk of infection can be minimized. Option A, flushing the central line with heparin, is not directly related to reducing urinary tract infections. Option B, administering narcotic analgesics as needed, is important for pain management but does not directly address infection prevention. Option D, ordering a high-protein diet, may be beneficial for wound healing but does not specifically target infection risk reduction in the post-operative period.

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