Nursing Elites

1. Nursing care plans are _______________?

• A. written by CNAs before they provide care
• B. guidelines of care that all nursing team members use
• C. used by nurses but not by nursing assistants
• D. used by nursing assistants but not by nurses

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nursing care plans are comprehensive documents created by registered nurses to outline individualized care for patients. These plans serve as guidelines for all members of the nursing team, including nursing assistants, to ensure consistent and quality care. Choice A is incorrect as CNAs typically assist in implementing the care plan rather than creating it. Choice C is incorrect as nursing care plans are utilized by all members of the nursing team, not exclusive to only nurses. Choice D is incorrect as nursing assistants also utilize nursing care plans to provide patient care effectively.

2. What term is used to describe the sexual response changes among middle-aged men?

• A. Menopause
• B. Climacteric
• C. Generativity
• D. Maturity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Climacteric.' Climacteric specifically refers to the period in middle-aged men characterized by sexual response changes, such as delayed arousal. Menopause, choice A, is incorrect as it is specific to women and marks the cessation of menstrual periods. Generativity, choice C, is unrelated as it refers to the concern for guiding the next generation. Maturity, choice D, is too broad and generally refers to reaching the adult stage of development, not specifically addressing sexual response changes in middle-aged men.

3. During a client interview, which of the following leading questions should the nurse avoid asking?

• A. What medication do you take at home?
• B. You are really excited about the plastic surgery, aren't you?
• C. Were you aware I've had this same type of surgery?
• D. What would you like to talk about?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should avoid asking leading questions during a client interview as they can influence the client's response. Option B is a leading question as it suggests an expected response from the client, potentially biasing the information provided. This can lead to inaccurate data collection and subsequent errors in diagnostic reasoning. Choices A, C, and D are open-ended questions that encourage the client to provide unbiased information and allow for a more comprehensive assessment.

4. What is the most useful patient position for proctologic exams?

• A. Trendelenburg
• B. Semi-Fowler's
• C. Full Fowler's
• D. Jack Knife

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The Jack Knife position is the most useful for proctologic exams as it allows the patient to lie face down while keeping the buttocks elevated, providing optimal access for the examination. The Trendelenburg position, characterized by the body being laid flat with the feet higher than the head, is not suitable for proctologic exams. Semi-Fowler's and Full Fowler's positions are typically utilized for respiratory or cardiovascular conditions and are not ideal for proctologic examinations due to their lack of optimal access to the perianal area.

5. When performing CPR, at what rate should chest compressions be applied?

• A. 100 per minute
• B. 60 per minute
• C. As quickly as possible
• D. 200 per minute

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During CPR, chest compressions should be applied at a rate of 100 compressions per minute in order to effectively circulate blood and oxygen to vital organs. Option A, '100 per minute,' is the correct answer as it aligns with the recommended compression rate in CPR guidelines. Option B, '60 per minute,' is incorrect as it is too slow and may not provide adequate circulation. Option C, 'As quickly as possible,' is vague and does not specify the recommended compression rate. Option D, '200 per minute,' is incorrect as it exceeds the recommended rate and may not be as effective in maintaining perfusion.

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