Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is reviewing percussion techniques with a new graduate nurse. Which action performed by the graduate nurse while percussing requires the nurse to intervene?

• A. Percussing twice over each area
• B. Striking with the fingertip, not the finger pad
• C. Using the wrist to make the strikes, not the arm
• D. Quickly lifting the striking finger after each stroke

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to percuss twice over each area, not once. This technique helps ensure a more accurate assessment. Striking with the fingertip instead of the finger pad is correct because the tip of the finger produces clearer sounds. Using the wrist to make the strikes instead of the arm is appropriate as it allows for more controlled and precise percussion. Quickly lifting the striking finger after each stroke is also correct to prevent damping off vibrations. Therefore, percussing once over each area (Choice A) is incorrect as it does not follow the standard percussion technique.

2. Which of the following is a negative outcome associated with impaired mobility?

• A. Increased amounts of calcium are absorbed from circulation
• B. A drop in blood pressure occurs when rising from a sitting to a standing position
• C. The amount of mucus in the bronchi and lungs decreases
• D. The vessel walls of the circulatory system thicken

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client with impaired mobility may develop changes in body systems that put them at risk of further illness or injury. One negative outcome associated with impaired mobility is orthostatic hypotension, where blood pressure drops significantly when moving from a sitting or lying position to a standing position. This drop in blood pressure can lead to symptoms such as dizziness or fainting. This occurs because blood circulates more slowly or pools in the distal extremities due to impaired mobility. Choice A is incorrect because increased calcium absorption is not a typical negative outcome associated with impaired mobility. Choice C is incorrect because a decrease in mucus in the bronchi and lungs is not a common negative outcome of impaired mobility. Choice D is incorrect because thickening of vessel walls in the circulatory system is not directly associated with impaired mobility.

3. What is the proper personal protective equipment necessary for collecting a sputum specimen?

• A. Gloves and face mask
• B. Level Three Biocontainment uniforms
• C. Eye protection and shoe covers
• D. Splash shield and face mask

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When collecting a sputum specimen, it is crucial to protect against potential airborne droplets that may spread disease. The best personal protective equipment for this task includes gloves and a face mask. Gloves help prevent the spread of contaminants through hand contact, while a face mask protects the respiratory tract from inhaling infectious agents. Choice B, Level Three Biocontainment uniforms, is excessive and unnecessary for routine sputum specimen collection. Choice C, eye protection and shoe covers, does not address the specific risks associated with sputum collection. Choice D, splash shield and face mask, provides additional protection that is not typically required for sputum specimen collection, making it less appropriate than gloves and a face mask.

4. While performing CPR, a healthcare provider encounters a client with a large amount of thick chest hair when preparing to use an automated external defibrillator (AED). What is the next appropriate action for the healthcare provider?

• A. Apply the pads to the chest and provide a shock
• B. Wipe the client's chest down with a towel before applying the pads
• C. Shave the client's chest to remove the hair
• D. Do not use the AED

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When using an AED, it is crucial for the pads to have good contact with the skin to effectively deliver an electrical shock. While AED pads can adhere to a client's chest even with some hair, thick chest hair can hinder proper current conduction. In such cases, it is recommended to shave the area of the chest where the pads will be applied. Most AED kits include a razor for this purpose. The healthcare provider should act promptly to minimize delays in defibrillation. Option A is incorrect because it may lead to ineffective treatment due to poor pad adherence. Option B is not the best course of action as wiping the chest may not resolve the issue of poor pad contact. Option D is incorrect as not using the AED could jeopardize the client's chance of survival in a cardiac emergency.

5. Intermittent fevers are:

• A. fevers which come and go.
• B. fevers which rise and fall but are always considered above the patient's average temperature.
• C. fevers which fluctuate more than three degrees and never return to normal.
• D. None of the above.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Intermittent fevers are characterized by periods of fever followed by periods of normal body temperature. They alternate between being febrile and afebrile. Continuous fevers show minimal fluctuations over a 24-hour period, while remittent fevers fluctuate significantly but do return to normal body temperature. Choice A is correct as it accurately describes intermittent fevers. Choices B and C are incorrect as they do not fully capture the defining characteristic of intermittent fevers, which involve cyclical episodes of fever and normal temperature. Choice D is incorrect as there is a specific definition for intermittent fevers.

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