NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Prep
1. You see a sign over Mary Jones' bed when you arrive at 7 am to begin your day shift. The sign says, 'NPO'. Ms. Jones is on a regular diet. The patient asks for milk and some crackers. You _____________.
- A. can give her the milk but not the crackers
- B. can give her both the milk and the crackers
- C. can give her the crackers but not the milk
- D. cannot give her anything to eat or drink
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is that you cannot give her anything to eat or drink. 'NPO' is the standard abbreviation for 'nothing by mouth,' indicating that the patient should not consume any food or liquids. It is crucial to adhere to this restriction to prevent any potential harm or complications in the patient's condition. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because 'NPO' clearly specifies that the patient should not have anything to eat or drink, including milk and crackers. Providing these items could lead to adverse effects, so it is essential to follow the 'NPO' directive strictly.
2. When counting an infant's respirations, which technique is correct?
- A. Watching the chest rise and fall
- B. Observing the movement of the abdomen
- C. Placing a hand across the infant's chest
- D. Using a stethoscope to listen to the breath sounds
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct technique for counting an infant's respirations is to observe the movement of the abdomen. Infants typically have more diaphragmatic breathing than thoracic, so watching the abdomen provides a more accurate count. Placing a hand on the chest or listening with a stethoscope can alter the infant's breathing pattern and provide inaccurate results. Therefore, options A, C, and D are incorrect methods for counting an infant's respirations. By observing the movement of the abdomen, healthcare providers can accurately assess an infant's respiratory rate without influencing their breathing pattern.
3. A child is admitted to the hospital several days after stepping on a sharp object that punctured her athletic shoe and entered the flesh of her foot. The physician is concerned about osteomyelitis and has ordered parenteral antibiotics. Which of the following actions is done immediately before the antibiotic is started?
- A. The admission orders are written.
- B. A blood culture is drawn.
- C. A complete blood count with differential is drawn.
- D. The parents arrive.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Before starting antibiotics, a blood culture should be drawn to identify the causative organism. This step is crucial as antibiotics may interfere with the identification process. Drawing a complete blood count with differential or writing admission orders are important steps in patient care but are not as critical as obtaining a blood culture to guide appropriate antibiotic therapy. The arrival of the parents is not directly related to the immediate action required before starting antibiotics in this scenario.
4. A client has just started a transfusion of packed red blood cells that a physician ordered. Which of the following signs may indicate a transfusion reaction?
- A. The client suddenly complains of back pain and has chills
- B. The client develops dependent edema in the extremities
- C. The client has a seizure
- D. The client's heart rate drops to 60 bpm
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is when the client suddenly complains of back pain and has chills. Signs of a transfusion reaction include back pain, chills, dizziness, increased temperature, and blood in the urine. These signs indicate a possible adverse reaction to the blood transfusion. Dependent edema in the extremities is not typically associated with a transfusion reaction. A seizure is not a common sign of a transfusion reaction unless it is due to severe complications. A decrease in heart rate to 60 bpm is not a typical sign of a transfusion reaction, but rather bradycardia may indicate other underlying conditions or medications.
5. Which of the following is classified as a prerenal condition that affects urinary elimination?
- A. Nephrotoxic medications
- B. Pericardial tamponade
- C. Neurogenic bladder
- D. Polycystic kidney disease
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A prerenal condition is one that causes reduced urinary elimination by affecting the blood flow to the kidneys. Pericardial tamponade is a condition that impacts the heart's ability to pump sufficient blood, leading to decreased blood flow to vital organs such as the kidneys. This reduction in blood flow to the kidneys can result in decreased urine production. The other choices, such as nephrotoxic medications, neurogenic bladder, and polycystic kidney disease, do not primarily affect the blood flow to the kidneys and are not classified as prerenal conditions that impact urinary elimination.
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