Nursing Elites

1. For a diabetic male client with a foot ulcer, the physician orders bed rest, a wet-to-dry dressing change every shift, and blood glucose monitoring before meals and bedtime. Why are wet-to-dry dressings used for this client?

• A. They contain exudate and provide a moist wound environment.
• B. They protect the wound from mechanical trauma and promote healing.
• C. They debride the wound and promote healing by secondary intention.
• D. They prevent the entrance of microorganisms and minimize wound discomfort.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Wet-to-dry dressings are utilized in this case to debride the wound by removing dead tissue and promoting healing by secondary intention. Choice A is incorrect as wet-to-dry dressings do not provide a moist wound environment; instead, they promote drying to aid in debridement. Choice B is incorrect because their primary purpose is not to protect the wound but to remove dead tissue. Choice D is incorrect as the main function of wet-to-dry dressings is not to prevent the entrance of microorganisms or minimize wound discomfort.

2. A patient with acute congestive heart failure is receiving high doses of a diuretic. On assessment, the nurse notes flat neck veins, generalized muscle weakness, and diminished deep tendon reflexes. Suspecting hyponatremia, what additional signs would the nurse expect to note in this patient if hyponatremia were present?

• A. Dry skin
• B. Decreased urinary output
• C. Hyperactive bowel sounds
• D. Increased specific gravity of the urine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a patient with hyponatremia, hyperactive bowel sounds are expected due to increased gastrointestinal motility. Dry skin (Choice A) is not a typical sign of hyponatremia. Decreased urinary output (Choice B) is more commonly associated with conditions like dehydration or renal issues, not specifically hyponatremia. Increased specific gravity of the urine (Choice D) is a sign of concentrated urine, which is not a characteristic finding in hyponatremia.

3. Nurse Ruth is assessing a client after a thyroidectomy. The assessment reveals muscle twitching and tingling, along with numbness in the fingers, toes, and mouth area. The nurse should suspect which complication?

• A. Tetany
• B. Hemorrhage
• C. Thyroid storm
• D. Laryngeal nerve damage

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Tetany.' Tetany is characterized by muscle twitching, tingling, and numbness, which are indicative of hypocalcemia. After a thyroidectomy, accidental removal or damage to the parathyroid glands can lead to decreased calcium levels, resulting in tetany. Choice B, 'Hemorrhage,' is incorrect as it typically presents with symptoms such as sudden swelling, increased pain, or drop in blood pressure. Choice C, 'Thyroid storm,' is incorrect as it involves a sudden exacerbation of hyperthyroidism, leading to symptoms like fever, tachycardia, and confusion. Choice D, 'Laryngeal nerve damage,' is incorrect as it would manifest with voice changes, difficulty swallowing, or respiratory distress, not the symptoms described in the scenario.

4. A nurse manager works hard to keep employee morale high with the thought that this will lead to effective employees doing the best work they can. Which of the following theories does this best describe?

• A. Theory X
• B. Theory Y
• C. Servant leadership
• D. Scientific management

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Theory Y, as proposed by Douglas McGregor, emphasizes that employees are intrinsically motivated and seek responsibility. It suggests that high morale leads to high productivity, aligning with the nurse manager's actions. Theory X, on the other hand, assumes employees are inherently lazy and need to be closely monitored and controlled. Servant leadership focuses on serving others first and prioritizing their needs, which is not directly related to the scenario described. Scientific management, developed by Frederick Taylor, emphasizes efficiency and standardization through systematic study and organizational control, which is not the primary focus of the nurse manager's approach to boosting employee morale.

5. Which of the following ethical principles is involved when a healthcare provider allows a patient to refuse treatment?

• A. Autonomy
• B. Nonmaleficence
• C. Beneficence
• D. Justice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Autonomy. Autonomy is the ethical principle that respects an individual's right to make their own decisions, including the right to refuse treatment. This principle acknowledges the patient's self-governance and independence in making choices about their own healthcare. Choice B, Nonmaleficence, refers to the ethical principle of doing no harm and ensuring patient safety. Choice C, Beneficence, involves promoting the patient's well-being and acting in their best interest. Choice D, Justice, pertains to fairness and equitable distribution of healthcare resources.

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