Nursing Elites

1. During the newborn admission assessment, the nurse palpates the newborn's scrotum and does not feel the testicles. Which assessment technique should the nurse perform next to verify the absence of testes?

• A. Observe the urethral opening on the surface of the penis when the newborn voids.
• B. Perform transillumination of the scrotal sac to visualize shadows of the testes.
• C. Use a fingertip to palpate the inguinal canal for a retractile or undescended testis.
• D. Measure the size of the scrotal sac for length and width.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: If the testes are not palpated in the scrotum, the next step is to check the inguinal canal for a retractile or undescended testis. This technique allows the nurse to determine if the testes are located within the inguinal canal rather than the scrotum. It is essential to assess for the presence of testes in the inguinal canal to ensure proper diagnosis and management of any potential issues related to testicular positioning.

2. A newborn with a yellow abdomen and chest is being assessed. What should be the nurse's initial action?

• A. Assess bilirubin level.
• B. Administer phototherapy.
• C. Encourage feeding to help reduce bilirubin levels.
• D. Perform a bilirubin test every hour.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action when assessing a newborn with a yellow abdomen and chest is to initially assess the bilirubin level. This helps determine the severity of jaundice in the newborn. Administering phototherapy (choice B) is a treatment intervention that follows the assessment. Encouraging feeding (choice C) can help with bilirubin excretion but is not the initial assessment. Performing a bilirubin test every hour (choice D) may not be necessary initially and could lead to unnecessary interventions.

3. The healthcare provider is preparing to give an enema to a laboring client. Which client requires the most caution when carrying out this procedure?

• A. A gravida 6, para 5 who is 38 years of age and in early labor.
• B. A 37-week primigravida who presents at 100% effacement, 3 cm cervical dilation, and a -1 station.
• C. A gravida 2, para 1 who is at 1 cm cervical dilation and a 0 station admitted for induction of labor due to postdates.
• D. A 40-week primigravida who is at 6 cm cervical dilation and the presenting part is not engaged.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client at 40 weeks of gestation with a 6 cm cervical dilation and a presenting part that is not engaged requires the most caution during an enema procedure. An unengaged presenting part increases the risk of cord prolapse, which can be a serious complication during the procedure. This situation demands careful attention to prevent potential complications and ensure the safety of the client and fetus. Choice A is incorrect as being in early labor does not pose the same level of risk as an unengaged presenting part. Choice B describes a client at 37 weeks with signs of early labor but does not indicate the same level of risk as an unengaged presenting part. Choice C involves a client at 1 cm cervical dilation and a 0 station with no mention of an unengaged presenting part, making it a less critical situation compared to an unengaged presentation, as in Choice D.

4. A father watching the admission of his newborn to the nursery notices that eye ointment is placed in the infant's eyes. He asks what is the purpose of the ointment. The nurse would be correct in stating that the purpose of the ointment is:

• A. Prevent eye infection.
• B. Dilate the pupil so the red reflex can be visualized.
• C. Clear the infant's vision.
• D. Prevent herpes infection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prevent eye infection. Eye ointment, usually containing erythromycin, is applied to prevent neonatal conjunctivitis, which can be caused by bacteria present in the birth canal. It is not used to dilate the pupil, clear the infant's vision, or prevent herpes infection.

5. Insulin therapy is initiated for a 12-year-old child who is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which action is most important for the nurse to include in the child’s plan of care?

• A. Monitor serum glucose for adjustment in the infusion rate of regular insulin (Novolin R).
• B. Determine the child’s compliance schedule for subcutaneous NPH insulin (Humulin N).
• C. Demonstrate to the parents how to program an insulin pen for daily glucose regulation.
• D. Consult with the healthcare provider about the use of insulin detemir (Levemir Flex Pen).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In managing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), monitoring serum glucose levels is crucial to adjust the infusion rate of regular insulin effectively. This helps in controlling blood glucose levels and preventing complications associated with DKA. Close monitoring and adjustments based on glucose levels are essential for the successful management of DKA. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses on a different type of insulin and compliance schedule without addressing the immediate needs of managing DKA. Choice C is not the priority action and involves educating parents on a different method of insulin administration. Choice D is also not the most important action as it suggests consulting with the healthcare provider about a different type of insulin rather than focusing on immediate glucose monitoring for insulin adjustment in DKA management.

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