Nursing Elites

1. During the admission assessment of a client with chronic bilateral glaucoma, which statement by the client would the nurse anticipate due to this condition?

• A. "I have constant blurred vision."?
• B. "I can't see on my left side."?
• C. "I have to turn my head to see my room."?
• D. "I have specks floating in my eyes."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In chronic bilateral glaucoma, peripheral visual field loss occurs due to elevated intraocular pressure, leading to the need to turn the head to compensate for the visual field deficit. This symptom is characteristic of advanced glaucoma. Choice A is incorrect as constant blurred vision is a common symptom but not specific to peripheral vision loss in glaucoma. Choice B is incorrect because specific visual field deficits are more common than complete loss on one side. Choice D is incorrect as seeing floaters (specks floating in the eyes) is associated with other eye conditions like posterior vitreous detachment, not glaucoma.

2. When taking a patient’s history, she mentions being depressed and dealing with an anxiety disorder. Which of the following medications would the patient most likely be taking?

• A. Amitriptyline (Elavil)
• B. Calcitonin
• C. Pergolide mesylate (Permax)
• D. Verapamil (Calan)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Amitriptyline (Elavil) as it is a tricyclic antidepressant commonly used to treat symptoms of depression and anxiety disorders. Amitriptyline works by increasing the levels of certain neurotransmitters in the brain to improve mood. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Calcitonin is a hormone used in the treatment of osteoporosis; Pergolide mesylate is a dopamine agonist used in Parkinson's disease; Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker used to treat high blood pressure and certain heart conditions, not mental health disorders.

3. A patient's chart indicates a history of meningitis. Which of the following would you NOT expect to see with this patient if this condition were acute?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Vomiting
• C. Fever
• D. Poor tolerance of light

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Increased appetite.' In cases of acute meningitis, loss of appetite would be expected rather than an increase. Meningitis is often caused by an infectious agent that colonizes or infects various sites in the body, leading to systemic symptoms. Common symptoms of acute meningitis include fever, vomiting, and poor tolerance of light due to meningeal irritation. The inflammatory response in the meninges can result in symptoms like photophobia. Increased appetite is not typically associated with acute meningitis. Therefore, choice A is the least likely symptom to be observed in a patient with acute meningitis. Choices B, C, and D are symptoms commonly seen in acute meningitis due to the inflammatory process affecting the central nervous system and meninges.

4. A client asks the nurse about including her 2 and 12-year-old sons in the care of their newborn sister. Which of the following is an appropriate initial statement by the nurse?

• A. Focus on your sons' needs during the first days at home.
• B. Tell each child what he can do to help with the baby.
• C. Suggest that your husband spend more time with the boys.
• D. Ask the children what they would like to do for the newborn.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: It is essential for the nurse to guide the client on the initial steps in involving her 2 and 12-year-old sons in the care of their newborn sister. The most appropriate response is to 'Focus on your sons' needs during the first days at home.' In an expanded family, parents should prioritize reassuring older children that they are loved and as important as the newborn. This response acknowledges the importance of ensuring the well-being and emotional adjustment of the older siblings during the transition period. Choices B, C, and D are less appropriate as they do not directly address the emotional needs and adjustment of the older children during this significant family change.

5. Which information about a 60-year-old patient with MS indicates that the nurse should consult with the healthcare provider before giving the prescribed dose of dalfampridine (Ampyra)?

• A. The patient has relapsing-remitting MS
• B. The patient walks a mile a day for exercise
• C. The patient complains of pain with neck flexion
• D. The patient has an increased serum creatinine level

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that the patient has an increased serum creatinine level. Dalfampridine should not be given to patients with impaired renal function as it can worsen their condition. Options A, B, and C are unrelated to the administration of dalfampridine. The fact that the patient has relapsing-remitting MS, walks for exercise, or experiences neck pain does not directly impact the decision to administer dalfampridine. However, an increased serum creatinine level is a contraindication for this medication and requires consultation with the healthcare provider to determine the appropriate course of action.

Similar Questions