Nursing Elites

1. During a well-child visit for their child, one of the parents with an autosomal dominant disorder tells the nurse, 'We don’t plan on having any more children, since the next child is likely to inherit this disorder.' How should the nurse respond?

• A. Explain that the risk of inheriting the disorder decreases by 50% with each child the couple has.
• B. Acknowledge that the next child will inherit the disorder since the first child did not.
• C. Encourage the couple to reconsider their decision since the inheritance pattern may be sex-linked.
• D. Confirm that there is a 50% chance of their future children inheriting the disorder.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Confirming that there is a 50% chance of their future children inheriting the disorder is the correct response in this situation. Autosomal dominant disorders have a 50% chance of being passed on to each child. Providing accurate genetic counseling is essential to help the parents make informed decisions about family planning. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is inaccurate because the risk of inheriting an autosomal dominant disorder remains at 50% for each child regardless of the number of children the couple has. Choice B is not appropriate as it does not provide helpful information or support to the parents. Choice C is misleading because autosomal dominant disorders follow a specific inheritance pattern and are not sex-linked.

2. A 34-week primigravida woman with preeclampsia is receiving Lactated Ringer’s 500ml with magnesium sulfate 20 grams at the rate of 3g/hr. How many ml/hr should the nurse program the infusion pump?

• A. 75ml/hr
• B. 100ml/hr
• C. 50ml/hr
• D. 25ml/hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate, divide the total quantity to be infused (500ml) by the total time (1 hour) which equals 500ml/hr. Since the magnesium sulfate is being given at 3g/hr, and 1g of magnesium sulfate is in 5ml of solution, the rate will be 3g/hr x 5ml/g = 15ml/hr. Therefore, the total infusion rate should be 500ml/hr + 15ml/hr = 515ml/hr. Hence, the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver 75ml/hr (515ml/hr total - 500ml/hr Lactated Ringer's rate). This choice is correct because it accounts for both the Lactated Ringer's and magnesium sulfate rates. Choice B, 100ml/hr, is incorrect as it does not consider the additional magnesium sulfate infusion rate. Choice C, 50ml/hr, is incorrect because it does not account for the magnesium sulfate infusion. Choice D, 25ml/hr, is incorrect as it is too low and does not consider the magnesium sulfate being infused concurrently.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a 2-hour-old infant born by cesarean delivery at 39-weeks gestation. Which assessment finding should receive the highest priority when planning the infant’s care?

• A. Blood pressure 76/42 mmHg.
• B. Faint heart murmur.
• C. Respiratory rate of 76 breaths/minute.
• D. Blood glucose 45 mg/dl.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A high respiratory rate in a newborn is concerning as it may indicate respiratory distress, which requires immediate attention to ensure adequate oxygenation. Monitoring and addressing respiratory issues take precedence over other parameters in the initial assessment of a newborn. The blood pressure, heart murmur, and blood glucose levels are important but not as urgent as addressing potential respiratory distress in a newborn.

4. What action should be implemented when preparing to measure the fundal height of a pregnant client?

• A. Have the client empty her bladder.
• B. Request the client lie on her left side.
• C. Perform Leopold's maneuvers first.
• D. Give the client some cold juice to drink.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action when preparing to measure the fundal height of a pregnant client is to have the client empty her bladder. This is essential to ensure an accurate measurement because a full bladder can displace the uterus and affect the accuracy of the assessment. Choice B is incorrect because the client should lie flat on her back, not on her left side, to measure fundal height accurately. Choice C is incorrect because Leopold's maneuvers are used to determine the position of the fetus, not to measure fundal height. Choice D is incorrect as giving the client cold juice is not necessary for measuring fundal height.

5. A 26-year-old, gravida 2, para 1 client is admitted to the hospital at 28 weeks gestation in preterm labor. She is given 3 doses of terbutaline sulfate (Brethine) 0.25 mg subcutaneously to stop her labor contractions. The LPN/LVN plans to monitor for which primary side effect of terbutaline sulfate?

• A. Drowsiness and bradycardia.
• B. Depressed reflexes and increased respirations.
• C. Tachycardia and a feeling of nervousness.
• D. A flushed, warm feeling and a dry mouth.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary side effects of terbutaline sulfate are related to its beta-adrenergic effects. Tachycardia and nervousness are common side effects of terbutaline sulfate. Tachycardia is expected due to the drug's beta-agonist properties, while nervousness can result from the stimulation of beta-adrenergic receptors. It is crucial to monitor the client for these side effects to ensure early recognition and appropriate management.

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