Nursing Elites

1. During a well-child visit for their child, one of the parents with an autosomal dominant disorder tells the nurse, 'We don’t plan on having any more children, since the next child is likely to inherit this disorder.' How should the nurse respond?

• A. Explain that the risk of inheriting the disorder decreases by 50% with each child the couple has.
• B. Acknowledge that the next child will inherit the disorder since the first child did not.
• C. Encourage the couple to reconsider their decision since the inheritance pattern may be sex-linked.
• D. Confirm that there is a 50% chance of their future children inheriting the disorder.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Confirming that there is a 50% chance of their future children inheriting the disorder is the correct response in this situation. Autosomal dominant disorders have a 50% chance of being passed on to each child. Providing accurate genetic counseling is essential to help the parents make informed decisions about family planning. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is inaccurate because the risk of inheriting an autosomal dominant disorder remains at 50% for each child regardless of the number of children the couple has. Choice B is not appropriate as it does not provide helpful information or support to the parents. Choice C is misleading because autosomal dominant disorders follow a specific inheritance pattern and are not sex-linked.

2. The healthcare provider prescribes magnesium sulfate 6 grams intravenously (IV) to be infused over 20 minutes for a client with preterm labor. The IV bag contains magnesium sulfate 20 grams in dextrose 5% in water 500 mL. How many mL/hour should the nurse set the infusion pump?

• A. 150 mL/hour
• B. 250 mL/hour
• C. 50 mL/hour
• D. 275 mL/hour

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate, first, determine the total volume to be infused (6 grams of magnesium sulfate) over a specific time frame (20 minutes). Then, calculate the concentration of magnesium sulfate in the IV bag to determine the mL/hour rate. The IV bag contains 20 grams of magnesium sulfate in 500 mL of solution, which means there are 4 grams of magnesium sulfate per 100 mL. Since 6 grams are required, the nurse should set the pump to deliver 150 mL/hour to infuse the prescribed dose over 20 minutes. Choice B, 250 mL/hour, is incorrect because it miscalculates the amount of magnesium sulfate infused per hour. Choice C, 50 mL/hour, is incorrect as it is too slow to deliver the required dose in the specified time frame. Choice D, 275 mL/hour, is incorrect as it overestimates the infusion rate and would deliver the dose too quickly.

3. At 39-weeks gestation, a multigravida is having a nonstress test (NST), the fetal heart rate (FHR) has remained non-reactive during 30 minutes of evaluation. Based on this finding, which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Initiate an intravenous infusion.
• B. Observe the FHR pattern for 30 more minutes.
• C. Schedule a biophysical profile.
• D. Place an acoustic stimulator on the abdomen.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cases where the fetal heart rate remains non-reactive during an NST, using an acoustic stimulator on the abdomen can help stimulate fetal movement and promote heart rate reactivity. This intervention aims to assess the fetus's well-being and response to external stimuli, which can provide valuable information about fetal health status.

4. A 26-year-old, gravida 2, para 1 client is admitted to the hospital at 28 weeks gestation in preterm labor. She is given 3 doses of terbutaline sulfate (Brethine) 0.25 mg subcutaneously to stop her labor contractions. The LPN/LVN plans to monitor for which primary side effect of terbutaline sulfate?

• A. Drowsiness and bradycardia.
• B. Depressed reflexes and increased respirations.
• C. Tachycardia and a feeling of nervousness.
• D. A flushed, warm feeling and a dry mouth.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary side effects of terbutaline sulfate are related to its beta-adrenergic effects. Tachycardia and nervousness are common side effects of terbutaline sulfate. Tachycardia is expected due to the drug's beta-agonist properties, while nervousness can result from the stimulation of beta-adrenergic receptors. It is crucial to monitor the client for these side effects to ensure early recognition and appropriate management.

5. A loading dose of terbutaline (Brethine) 250 mcg IV is prescribed for a client in preterm labor. Brethine 20 mg is added to 1,000 mL of D5W. How many milliliters of the solution should the nurse administer?

• A. 45
• B. 15 mL
• C. 4
• D. 13

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To calculate the amount of terbutaline to administer, first convert the dose to the same unit. 250 mcg = 0.25 mg. Next, set up a proportion: 20 mg is to 1000 mL as 0.25 mg is to X mL. Cross multiply and solve for X: 20 × X = 0.25 × 1000. X = (0.25 × 1000) / 20 = 12.5 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 13 mL of the solution. Choice A is incorrect as it does not reflect the correct calculation. Choice B is incorrect as it does not consider the accurate conversion and calculation. Choice C is incorrect as it is not the result of the correct proportion calculation.

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