Nursing Elites

1. During a well-child visit for their child, one of the parents with an autosomal dominant disorder tells the nurse, 'We don’t plan on having any more children, since the next child is likely to inherit this disorder.' How should the nurse respond?

• A. Explain that the risk of inheriting the disorder decreases by 50% with each child the couple has.
• B. Acknowledge that the next child will inherit the disorder since the first child did not.
• C. Encourage the couple to reconsider their decision since the inheritance pattern may be sex-linked.
• D. Confirm that there is a 50% chance of their future children inheriting the disorder.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Confirming that there is a 50% chance of their future children inheriting the disorder is the correct response in this situation. Autosomal dominant disorders have a 50% chance of being passed on to each child. Providing accurate genetic counseling is essential to help the parents make informed decisions about family planning. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is inaccurate because the risk of inheriting an autosomal dominant disorder remains at 50% for each child regardless of the number of children the couple has. Choice B is not appropriate as it does not provide helpful information or support to the parents. Choice C is misleading because autosomal dominant disorders follow a specific inheritance pattern and are not sex-linked.

2. A client at 32-weeks gestation is diagnosed with preeclampsia. Which assessment finding is most indicative of an impending convulsion?

• A. 3+ deep tendon reflexes and hyperreflexia.
• B. Periorbital edema, flashing lights, and aura.
• C. Epigastric pain in the third trimester.
• D. Recent decreased urinary output.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with preeclampsia, 3+ deep tendon reflexes and hyperreflexia are indicative of severe preeclampsia. These neurological signs suggest an increased risk for seizures, making option A the most indicative of an impending convulsion. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with an impending convulsion in a client with preeclampsia.

3. A mother who is breastfeeding her baby receives instructions from the nurse. Which instruction is most effective to prevent nipple soreness?

• A. Wear a cotton bra.
• B. Increase nursing time gradually.
• C. Correctly place the infant on the breast.
• D. Manually express a small amount of milk before nursing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most effective instruction to prevent nipple soreness when breastfeeding is to correctly place the infant on the breast. Proper latch-on techniques ensure that the baby is properly positioned, reducing the risk of nipple soreness. When the baby is positioned correctly, they can nurse effectively without causing discomfort to the mother.

4. To confirm respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) in a newborn, what should the nurse assess?

• A. Assess diaphragmatic breathing.
• B. Assess heart sounds.
• C. Monitor blood oxygen levels.
• D. Check for signs of infection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To confirm respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) in a newborn, the nurse should assess diaphragmatic breathing. In RDS, the baby may have difficulty breathing due to immature lungs, leading to shallow, rapid breathing movements. Assessing diaphragmatic breathing directly evaluates the respiratory effort and can help identify the presence of RDS. Choice B, assessing heart sounds, is not specific to diagnosing RDS but could be relevant for other conditions. Choice C, monitoring blood oxygen levels, is important but alone may not confirm RDS. Choice D, checking for signs of infection, is not a direct indicator of RDS but rather suggests a different issue.

5. During a routine prenatal health assessment for a client in her third trimester, the client reports that she had fluid leakage on her way to the appointment. Which technique should the nurse implement to evaluate the leakage?

• A. Insert a straight urinary catheter to drain the bladder.
• B. Scan the bladder for urinary retention.
• C. Palpate the suprapubic area for fetal head position.
• D. Test the fluid with a nitrazine strip.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Testing the fluid with a nitrazine strip is the appropriate technique to differentiate between amniotic fluid and urine. This test helps in determining if the fluid leakage is amniotic fluid, which is crucial for guiding further management and ensuring appropriate care for the client during the third trimester of pregnancy. Inserting a straight urinary catheter to drain the bladder (Choice A) is unnecessary and invasive in this scenario as the concern is fluid leakage, not urinary retention. Scanning the bladder for urinary retention (Choice B) is also not indicated since the client reported fluid leakage, not retention. Palpating the suprapubic area for fetal head position (Choice C) is unrelated to assessing fluid leakage and not the appropriate technique in this situation.

Similar Questions