Nursing Elites

1. During a well-child visit for their child, one of the parents with an autosomal dominant disorder tells the nurse, 'We don’t plan on having any more children, since the next child is likely to inherit this disorder.' How should the nurse respond?

• A. Explain that the risk of inheriting the disorder decreases by 50% with each child the couple has.
• B. Acknowledge that the next child will inherit the disorder since the first child did not.
• C. Encourage the couple to reconsider their decision since the inheritance pattern may be sex-linked.
• D. Confirm that there is a 50% chance of their future children inheriting the disorder.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Confirming that there is a 50% chance of their future children inheriting the disorder is the correct response in this situation. Autosomal dominant disorders have a 50% chance of being passed on to each child. Providing accurate genetic counseling is essential to help the parents make informed decisions about family planning. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is inaccurate because the risk of inheriting an autosomal dominant disorder remains at 50% for each child regardless of the number of children the couple has. Choice B is not appropriate as it does not provide helpful information or support to the parents. Choice C is misleading because autosomal dominant disorders follow a specific inheritance pattern and are not sex-linked.

2. A multiparous client is involuntarily pushing while being wheeled into the labor triage area. The nurse observes the fetal head presenting at the perineum. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Support the infant as it emerges.
• B. Review prenatal laboratory results.
• C. Obtain fetal heart tones.
• D. Apply suprapubic pressure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When the fetal head is visible at the perineum, the priority is to support the infant's birth to prevent injury. Providing support as the infant emerges helps ensure a safe delivery process and reduces the risk of complications associated with rapid or uncontrolled birth.

3. A 3-month-old with myelomeningocele and atonic bladder is catheterized every 4hrs to prevent urinary retention. The home health nurse notes that the child has developed episodes of sneezing, urticarial, watery eyes, and a rash in the diaper area. What action is most important for the nurse to take?

• A. Auscultate the lungs for respiratory pneumonia.
• B. Change to latex-free gloves when handling infant.
• C. Draw blood to analyze for streptococcal infection.
• D. Apply zinc oxide to perineum with each diaper change.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Latex allergy is a concern in patients with myelomeningocele, so switching to latex-free gloves is important.

4. What is the most important assessment for the healthcare provider to conduct before the administration of epidural anesthesia to a client at 40 weeks' gestation?

• A. Maternal blood pressure.
• B. Level of pain sensation.
• C. Station of presenting part.
• D. Variability of fetal heart rate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing maternal blood pressure is crucial before administering epidural anesthesia because it can cause hypotension, affecting both the mother and the fetus. Hypotension can lead to decreased placental perfusion, potentially compromising the fetal oxygen supply. Monitoring and maintaining maternal blood pressure within a safe range are essential to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the fetus during the administration of epidural anesthesia. The other options, such as assessing the level of pain sensation, station of presenting part, and variability of fetal heart rate, are important in obstetric care but are not as critical as monitoring maternal blood pressure to prevent complications related to epidural anesthesia administration.

5. After a client delivered vaginally 2 days ago, what information should you share with her if she wants to resume using her diaphragm for birth control?

• A. The diaphragm is the most effective form of contraception.
• B. The diaphragm must be refitted after childbirth.
• C. Vaseline lubricant should be used when inserting the diaphragm.
• D. The diaphragm should be inserted 2 to 4 hours before intercourse.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After childbirth, the diaphragm must be refitted to ensure a proper fit and effectiveness. Changes in the body post-delivery can affect the fit of the diaphragm, making it necessary to get refitted. Choice A is incorrect because while the diaphragm can be effective, it is not the most effective form of contraception. Choice C is incorrect because oil-based lubricants like Vaseline can damage latex diaphragms. Choice D is incorrect because the diaphragm should be inserted no more than 2 hours before intercourse, not 2 to 4 hours.

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