Nursing Elites

1. During a well-child visit for their child, one of the parents with an autosomal dominant disorder tells the nurse, 'We don’t plan on having any more children, since the next child is likely to inherit this disorder.' How should the nurse respond?

• A. Explain that the risk of inheriting the disorder decreases by 50% with each child the couple has.
• B. Acknowledge that the next child will inherit the disorder since the first child did not.
• C. Encourage the couple to reconsider their decision since the inheritance pattern may be sex-linked.
• D. Confirm that there is a 50% chance of their future children inheriting the disorder.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Confirming that there is a 50% chance of their future children inheriting the disorder is the correct response in this situation. Autosomal dominant disorders have a 50% chance of being passed on to each child. Providing accurate genetic counseling is essential to help the parents make informed decisions about family planning. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is inaccurate because the risk of inheriting an autosomal dominant disorder remains at 50% for each child regardless of the number of children the couple has. Choice B is not appropriate as it does not provide helpful information or support to the parents. Choice C is misleading because autosomal dominant disorders follow a specific inheritance pattern and are not sex-linked.

2. What is the most important assessment for the healthcare provider to conduct before the administration of epidural anesthesia to a client at 40 weeks' gestation?

• A. Maternal blood pressure.
• B. Level of pain sensation.
• C. Station of presenting part.
• D. Variability of fetal heart rate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing maternal blood pressure is crucial before administering epidural anesthesia because it can cause hypotension, affecting both the mother and the fetus. Hypotension can lead to decreased placental perfusion, potentially compromising the fetal oxygen supply. Monitoring and maintaining maternal blood pressure within a safe range are essential to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the fetus during the administration of epidural anesthesia. The other options, such as assessing the level of pain sensation, station of presenting part, and variability of fetal heart rate, are important in obstetric care but are not as critical as monitoring maternal blood pressure to prevent complications related to epidural anesthesia administration.

3. During a prenatal visit, the LPN/LVN discusses with a client the effects of smoking on the fetus. When compared with nonsmokers, mothers who smoke during pregnancy tend to produce infants who have

• A. lower Apgar scores.
• B. lower birth weights.
• C. respiratory distress.
• D. a higher rate of congenital anomalies.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When mothers smoke during pregnancy, it is associated with intrauterine growth restriction, which leads to lower birth weights in infants. Maternal smoking can restrict the flow of oxygen and nutrients to the fetus, affecting its growth and development. This can result in babies being born with lower birth weights, which can have various health implications for the newborn. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as smoking during pregnancy is primarily linked to intrauterine growth restriction and lower birth weights in infants, rather than lower Apgar scores, respiratory distress, or a higher rate of congenital anomalies.

4. A client at 32-weeks gestation is diagnosed with preeclampsia. Which assessment finding is most indicative of an impending convulsion?

• A. 3+ deep tendon reflexes and hyperreflexia.
• B. Periorbital edema, flashing lights, and aura.
• C. Epigastric pain in the third trimester.
• D. Recent decreased urinary output.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with preeclampsia, 3+ deep tendon reflexes and hyperreflexia are indicative of severe preeclampsia. These neurological signs suggest an increased risk for seizures, making option A the most indicative of an impending convulsion. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with an impending convulsion in a client with preeclampsia.

5. A mother calls the school nurse to report that her preschool-aged child was bitten by a tick during a school outing last week. The mother removed the tick and flushed it down the toilet. What action should the school nurse take?

• A. Refer the mother to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.
• B. Report the incident to the school principal.
• C. Culture the bite site when the child returns to school.
• D. Schedule a test for Lyme disease if a rash appears.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action to take in this situation is to schedule a test for Lyme disease if a rash appears. Lyme disease can be transmitted through tick bites, and a rash is a common early symptom of the disease. Testing for Lyme disease is crucial for timely diagnosis and treatment to prevent complications. Referring the mother to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (Choice A) is not necessary at this point, as immediate testing for Lyme disease is more appropriate. Reporting the incident to the school principal (Choice B) is not the most direct action to address the potential health concern. Culturing the bite site when the child returns to school (Choice C) may not be as effective as scheduling a test for Lyme disease if a rash appears, as the latter is a more specific diagnostic measure for Lyme disease.

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