Nursing Elites

1. Application - The nurse is caring for a patient who has the following labs: Creatinine 2.5mg/dL, WBC 11,000 cells/mL, and Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL. Based on this information, which of these orders would the nurse question?

• A. Administer 30 Units of Lantus Daily
• B. CT of the spine with contrast
• C. X-ray of the abdomen and chest
• D. Administer heparin subcutaneously 5,000 Units every 12 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to question the order for a CT of the spine with contrast. The patient's elevated creatinine level of 2.5mg/dL indicates impaired kidney function. Contrast agents are nephrotoxic and can further compromise kidney function in patients with existing nephropathy. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid contrast-enhanced imaging studies in patients with impaired renal function. Choice A: Administering 30 Units of Lantus Daily is not contraindicated based on the provided lab values. Choice C: Ordering an X-ray of the abdomen and chest is not contraindicated based on the provided lab values. Choice D: Administering heparin subcutaneously at 5,000 Units every 12 hours is not contraindicated based on the provided lab values.

2. A fragile 87-year-old female has recently been admitted to the hospital with increased confusion and falls over the last two weeks. She is also noted to have a mild left hemiparesis. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed?

• A. CBC (Complete Blood Count)
• B. ECG (Electrocardiogram)
• C. Thyroid Function Tests
• D. CT Scan

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A CT scan is most likely to be performed in this scenario. A CT scan would be done to further investigate the cause of the left hemiparesis. Noncontrast CT scanning is commonly used in the acute evaluation of patients with suspected acute stroke to assess for ischemic changes or hemorrhage in the brain. While a CBC may provide information on blood cell counts and general health status, it is not the primary test for evaluating hemiparesis. An ECG is used to assess heart function and rhythm, which is not the main concern in this case. Thyroid function tests evaluate thyroid hormone levels and are not typically the initial tests for evaluating hemiparesis and confusion.

3. A 33-year-old male client with heart failure has been taking furosemide for the past week. Which of the following assessment cues below may indicate the client is experiencing a negative side effect from the medication?

• A. Weight gain of 5 pounds
• B. Edema of the ankles
• C. Gastric irritability
• D. Decreased appetite

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Decreased appetite.' Furosemide is a loop diuretic used for conditions like heart failure, where it helps reduce fluid retention. One common side effect of furosemide is hypokalemia, which can lead to decreased appetite among other symptoms. Hypokalemia is a low level of potassium in the blood, and its signs and symptoms include anorexia, fatigue, nausea, decreased GI motility, muscle weakness, dysrhythmias, reduced urine osmolality, and altered level of consciousness. Weight gain and ankle edema are actually expected outcomes of furosemide therapy due to its diuretic effect, which helps reduce edema and fluid overload. Gastric irritability is a nonspecific symptom that is not typically associated with furosemide use. Therefore, a decreased appetite is a key indicator of a potential negative side effect when assessing a client on furosemide therapy.

4. Which of the following conditions most commonly causes acute glomerulonephritis?

• A. A congenital condition leading to renal dysfunction.
• B. Prior infection with group A Streptococcus within the past 10-14 days.
• C. Viral infection of the glomeruli.
• D. Nephrotic syndrome.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Acute glomerulonephritis is most commonly caused by the immune response to a prior upper respiratory infection with group A Streptococcus. Glomerular inflammation occurs about 10-14 days after the infection, resulting in scant, dark urine and retention of body fluid. Periorbital edema and hypertension are common signs at diagnosis.

5. The nurse is caring for a woman 2 hours after a vaginal delivery. Documentation indicates that the membranes were ruptured for 36 hours prior to delivery. What are the priority nursing diagnoses at this time?

• A. Altered tissue perfusion
• B. Risk for fluid volume deficit
• C. High risk for hemorrhage
• D. Risk for infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for infection.' When the membranes are ruptured for more than 24 hours prior to birth, there is a significantly increased risk of infection for both the mother and the newborn. Monitoring for signs of infection, such as fever, foul-smelling vaginal discharge, and uterine tenderness, is crucial. Option A, 'Altered tissue perfusion,' is not the priority in this scenario as infection risk takes precedence due to the prolonged rupture of membranes. Option B, 'Risk for fluid volume deficit,' is less of a priority compared to the immediate risk of infection. Option C, 'High risk for hemorrhage,' is not the priority concern at this time based on the information provided.

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