NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Exam Cram
1. An infant with hydrocele is seen in the clinic for a follow-up visit at 1 month of age. The scrotum is smaller than it was at birth, but fluid is still visible on illumination. Which of the following actions is the physician likely to recommend?
- A. Massaging the groin area twice a day until the fluid is gone.
- B. Referral to a surgeon for repair.
- C. No treatment is necessary; the fluid is reabsorbing normally.
- D. Keeping the infant in a flat, supine position until the fluid is gone.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A hydrocele is a collection of fluid in the scrotum that results from a patent tunica vaginalis. Illumination of the scrotum with a pocket light demonstrates the clear fluid. In most cases, the fluid reabsorbs within the first few months of life and no treatment is necessary. Massaging the groin area (Choice A) is not recommended as it will not help in the resolution of the hydrocele. Referral to a surgeon (Choice B) is not necessary at this stage since hydroceles often resolve on their own in infants. Keeping the infant in a flat, supine position (Choice D) does not aid in the reabsorption of fluid and is not a recommended intervention for hydrocele management.
2. When orally administering alendronate (Fosamax), a bisphosphonate drug, to a largely bed-bound patient being treated for osteoporosis, what is the most important nursing consideration?
- A. Sit the head of the bed up for 30 minutes after administration
- B. Give the patient a small amount of water to drink
- C. Feed the patient soon, at most 10 minutes after administration
- D. Assess the patient for back pain or abdominal pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct nursing consideration when administering bisphosphonates like alendronate is to sit the head of the bed up for 30 minutes after administration. Bisphosphonates are known to cause esophageal irritation, which can lead to esophagitis. By sitting upright, the patient reduces the time the medication spends in the esophagus, decreasing the risk of irritation and potential adverse effects. Giving the patient water to drink or feeding them immediately after administration can increase the risk of esophageal irritation. Assessing the patient for back pain or abdominal pain is important but not the most critical consideration during drug administration.
3. You are responsible for reviewing the nursing unit's refrigerator. Which of the following drugs, if found inside the fridge, should be removed?
- A. Nadolol (Corgard)
- B. Opened (in-use) Humulin N injection
- C. Urokinase (Kinlytic)
- D. Epoetin alfa IV (Epogen)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Nadolol (Corgard) should be removed if found inside the fridge because it is supposed to be stored at room temperature between 59 to 86 �F (15 and 30 �C) away from heat, moisture, and light. Storing it in the refrigerator can alter its effectiveness and stability. Option B, the opened Humulin N injection, should not be stored in the refrigerator as it is an in-use product and can remain at room temperature for a certain period as per manufacturer guidelines. Option C, Urokinase (Kinlytic), and Option D, Epoetin alfa IV (Epogen), do not require refrigeration and can be stored at room temperature. Therefore, Nadolol (Corgard) is the drug that should be removed from the fridge.
4. What is the primary nursing concern when caring for patients being treated with splints, casts, or traction?
- A. To assess for and prevent neurovascular complications or dysfunction
- B. To ensure adequate nutrition during the healing process
- C. To provide patient education for maintenance of splints, casts, or traction in the community
- D. To treat acute pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The primary nursing concern when caring for patients with splints, casts, or traction is to assess for and prevent neurovascular complications or dysfunction. This is crucial to ensure adequate circulation and nerve function, preventing long-term complications such as ischemia or nerve damage. While adequate nutrition and patient education are important aspects of care, they are not the primary concern in this scenario. Acute pain management is important but is secondary to preventing neurovascular complications in patients treated with splints, casts, or traction.
5. Which patient is at risk for developing oral candidiasis, a type of stomatitis?
- A. A 77-year-old woman in a long-term care facility taking an antibiotic
- B. A 35-year-old man who has had HIV for 6 years
- C. A 40-year-old man who is undergoing chemotherapy
- D. An 80-year-old woman with dentures
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is a 77-year-old woman in a long-term care facility taking an antibiotic. This patient has multiple risk factors for developing oral candidiasis, including older age, being in a long-term care facility, and taking antibiotics. Candidiasis can be caused by long-term antibiotic therapy, immunosuppressive therapy (such as chemotherapy), older age, living in a long-term care facility, diabetes, having dentures, and poor oral hygiene. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to be at high risk for oral candidiasis compared to the correct answer.
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