Nursing Elites

1. An infant with hydrocele is seen in the clinic for a follow-up visit at 1 month of age. The scrotum is smaller than it was at birth, but fluid is still visible on illumination. Which of the following actions is the physician likely to recommend?

• A. Massaging the groin area twice a day until the fluid is gone.
• B. Referral to a surgeon for repair.
• C. No treatment is necessary; the fluid is reabsorbing normally.
• D. Keeping the infant in a flat, supine position until the fluid is gone.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A hydrocele is a collection of fluid in the scrotum that results from a patent tunica vaginalis. Illumination of the scrotum with a pocket light demonstrates the clear fluid. In most cases, the fluid reabsorbs within the first few months of life and no treatment is necessary. Massaging the groin area (Choice A) is not recommended as it will not help in the resolution of the hydrocele. Referral to a surgeon (Choice B) is not necessary at this stage since hydroceles often resolve on their own in infants. Keeping the infant in a flat, supine position (Choice D) does not aid in the reabsorption of fluid and is not a recommended intervention for hydrocele management.

2. A patient is being visited at home by a healthcare professional. The patient has been taking Naproxen for back pain. Which statement made by the patient most indicates that the healthcare professional needs to contact the physician?

• A. I get an upset stomach if I don't take Naproxen with my meals.
• B. My back pain right now is about a 3/10.
• C. I get occasional headaches since taking Naproxen
• D. I have ringing in my ears.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'I have ringing in my ears.' Ringing in the ears is a severe adverse effect of Naproxen, indicating potential toxicity. This symptom warrants immediate medical attention. Choices A, B, and C are less concerning and do not directly indicate a severe adverse effect or toxicity related to Naproxen. Upset stomach, mild back pain, and occasional headaches are common side effects that may not require immediate physician contact.

3. A patient is admitted to the same-day surgery unit for a liver biopsy. Which of the following laboratory tests assesses coagulation? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Partial thromboplastin time
• B. Prothrombin time
• C. Platelet count
• D. Hemoglobin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hemoglobin.' Hemoglobin levels are not indicative of coagulation status but are important for assessing oxygen-carrying capacity. Choices A, B, and C are all laboratory tests that assess coagulation. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) and prothrombin time (PT) evaluate different aspects of the coagulation cascade, while platelet count is essential for assessing primary hemostasis. Therefore, in the context of evaluating coagulation, hemoglobin is not the appropriate choice.

4. A 23-year-old woman is admitted to the infusion clinic after a Multiple Sclerosis exacerbation. The physician orders methylprednisolone infusions (Solu-Medrol). The nurse would expect which of the following outcomes after administration of this medication?

• A. A decrease in muscle spasticity and involuntary movements
• B. A slowed progression of Multiple Sclerosis-related plaques
• C. A decrease in the length of the exacerbation
• D. A stabilization of mood and sleep

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Methylprednisolone infusion is the first-line treatment during an acute exacerbation of Multiple Sclerosis. It is used to decrease the length and severity of a relapse by reducing inflammation in the central nervous system. Choice A, 'A decrease in muscle spasticity and involuntary movements,' is incorrect because methylprednisolone primarily targets inflammation and does not directly address muscle spasticity. Choice B, 'A slowed progression of Multiple Sclerosis-related plaques,' is incorrect as methylprednisolone is not used to slow the progression of the disease but rather to manage acute exacerbations. Choice D, 'A stabilization of mood and sleep,' is not an expected outcome of methylprednisolone administration for Multiple Sclerosis exacerbation as it primarily targets the inflammatory process associated with the relapse.

5. A 55-year-old patient admitted with an abrupt onset of jaundice and nausea has abnormal liver function studies, but serologic testing is negative for viral causes of hepatitis. Which question by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Is there any history of IV drug use?
• B. Do you use any over-the-counter drugs?
• C. Are you taking corticosteroids for any reason?
• D. Have you recently traveled to a foreign country?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate question for the nurse to ask in this scenario is whether the patient uses any over-the-counter drugs. The patient's symptoms, negative serologic testing for viral hepatitis, and sudden onset of symptoms point towards toxic hepatitis, which can be triggered by commonly used over-the-counter medications like acetaminophen (Tylenol). Asking about IV drug use is relevant for viral hepatitis, not toxic hepatitis. Inquiring about recent travel to a foreign country is more pertinent to potential exposure to infectious agents causing viral hepatitis. Corticosteroid use is not typically associated with the symptoms described in the case.

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