Nursing Elites

1. An adult client is admitted to the emergency department after falling from a ladder. While waiting to have a CT scan, the client requests something for a severe headache. When the nurse offers a prescribed dose of acetaminophen, the client asks for something stronger. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer an anti-inflammatory medication instead
• B. Explain the reason for using only non-narcotics
• C. Consult the healthcare provider about a stronger medication
• D. Administer a stronger medication as requested

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should explain the reason for using only non-narcotics. Following head trauma, non-narcotic medications such as acetaminophen are preferred to avoid masking symptoms of neurological changes, such as increased intracranial pressure, that could worsen after stronger pain medication. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication (Choice A) may not be appropriate as it may not address the severity of the headache. Consulting the healthcare provider about a stronger medication (Choice C) is important, but the immediate need is to educate the client on the rationale for using non-narcotic medications first. Administering a stronger medication as requested (Choice D) could potentially mask important symptoms and should be avoided in this situation.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus presents with a blood sugar level of 320 mg/dL. What is the nurse's initial action?

• A. Administer sliding scale insulin as prescribed
• B. Encourage the client to drink fluids
• C. Provide the client with a carbohydrate snack
• D. Assess the client for signs of hypoglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with diabetes mellitus presents with a high blood sugar level of 320 mg/dL, the nurse's initial action should be to administer sliding scale insulin as prescribed. The priority is to bring down the elevated glucose level promptly to prevent further complications. Encouraging the client to drink fluids or providing a carbohydrate snack would not effectively address the elevated blood sugar level in this scenario. Assessing for signs of hypoglycemia is not appropriate as the client's blood sugar level is high, not low.

3. Which medication should the nurse withhold if the client's serum potassium level is 6.2 mEq/L?

• A. Losartan
• B. Spironolactone
• C. Metoprolol
• D. Furosemide

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Spironolactone. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to hyperkalemia. With potassium levels already elevated at 6.2 mEq/L, withholding Spironolactone is essential to prevent further increase in potassium levels, which could result in dangerous cardiac arrhythmias. Losartan (Choice A) is an angiotensin receptor blocker and does not directly affect potassium levels. Metoprolol (Choice C) is a beta-blocker and also does not impact potassium levels significantly. Furosemide (Choice D) is a loop diuretic that can actually lower potassium levels, so it would not be the medication to withhold in this case.

4. An older client with chronic emphysema is admitted to the emergency room with acute weakness, palpitations, and vomiting. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain during the initial interview?

• A. Recent compliance with prescribed medications.
• B. Sleep patterns during the previous few weeks.
• C. History of smoking over the past 6 months.
• D. Activity level prior to the onset of symptoms.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. In this scenario, the most critical information for the nurse to obtain during the initial interview is the recent compliance with prescribed medications. This is crucial to understand the client's baseline condition and management of chronic emphysema. Monitoring medication adherence can provide insights into potential exacerbating factors that may have led to the current acute symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are not as crucial in this situation. Sleep patterns, smoking history, and activity levels are important aspects of the client's overall health but do not take precedence over medication compliance when addressing acute symptoms in a client with chronic emphysema.

5. In assessing a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus, the nurse notes that the client's respirations have changed from 16 breaths/min with a normal depth to 32 breaths/min and deep, and the client becomes lethargic. Which assessment data should the nurse obtain next?

• A. Pulse oximetry
• B. Blood glucose
• C. Arterial blood gases
• D. Serum electrolytes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Deep, rapid respirations (Kussmaul respirations) and lethargy are signs of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which occurs in uncontrolled type 1 diabetes. Checking the blood glucose is the priority to confirm hyperglycemia and guide immediate treatment. Pulse oximetry is not the priority in this situation as the issue is related to altered glucose levels, not oxygenation. Arterial blood gases and serum electrolytes may be important later in the management of DKA but are not the initial priority compared to confirming and addressing the hyperglycemia.

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