HESI RN
HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone
1. An adult client is admitted to the emergency department after falling from a ladder. While waiting to have a CT scan, the client requests something for a severe headache. When the nurse offers a prescribed dose of acetaminophen, the client asks for something stronger. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer an anti-inflammatory medication instead
- B. Explain the reason for using only non-narcotics
- C. Consult the healthcare provider about a stronger medication
- D. Administer a stronger medication as requested
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should explain the reason for using only non-narcotics. Following head trauma, non-narcotic medications such as acetaminophen are preferred to avoid masking symptoms of neurological changes, such as increased intracranial pressure, that could worsen after stronger pain medication. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication (Choice A) may not be appropriate as it may not address the severity of the headache. Consulting the healthcare provider about a stronger medication (Choice C) is important, but the immediate need is to educate the client on the rationale for using non-narcotic medications first. Administering a stronger medication as requested (Choice D) could potentially mask important symptoms and should be avoided in this situation.
2. A client receiving chemotherapy reports severe nausea. What should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer an antiemetic as prescribed.
- B. Offer the client small, frequent meals.
- C. Provide the client with crackers and water.
- D. Encourage the client to eat a bland diet.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer an antiemetic as prescribed. When a client receiving chemotherapy reports severe nausea, the priority action is to administer an antiemetic medication as prescribed. Antiemetics help alleviate nausea and prevent complications associated with chemotherapy, such as dehydration and malnutrition. Options B, C, and D focus on dietary interventions which can be helpful but addressing the severe nausea with antiemetic medication takes precedence to provide immediate relief and ensure the client's comfort and well-being.
3. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with severe anemia. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Pale skin
- B. Increased heart rate
- C. Shortness of breath
- D. Fatigue
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Shortness of breath is a critical sign in severe anemia as it indicates inadequate oxygenation, which can be life-threatening. Immediate intervention is necessary to address this condition. Pale skin (choice A) is a common finding in anemia but not as urgent as shortness of breath. Increased heart rate (choice B) is a compensatory mechanism in anemia to maintain oxygen delivery and is important but not as urgent as addressing inadequate oxygenation. Fatigue (choice D) is a common symptom in anemia but does not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation like shortness of breath does.
4. A client receiving chemotherapy for cancer treatment is experiencing nausea and vomiting. What is the nurse's best intervention to manage these symptoms?
- A. Offer frequent, small meals
- B. Administer antiemetics before meals
- C. Encourage the client to eat a high-fat diet
- D. Provide the client with cold, carbonated beverages
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering antiemetics before meals is the best intervention to manage nausea and vomiting in clients receiving chemotherapy. This proactive approach helps control symptoms by preventing nausea from occurring, rather than waiting to treat it once symptoms have already started. Offering frequent, small meals (choice A) may worsen symptoms in some cases due to increased stomach activity. Encouraging a high-fat diet (choice C) can be difficult for nauseated clients and may not alleviate symptoms. Providing cold, carbonated beverages (choice D) could exacerbate nausea further due to the temperature and carbonation.
5. The mother of a 2-day-old infant girl expresses concern about a 'flea bite' type rash on her daughter's body. The nurse identifies a pink papular rash with vesicles superimposed over the thorax, back, buttocks, and abdomen. Which explanation should the nurse offer?
- A. We need to monitor the rash for signs of worsening or fever
- B. Your baby may have an allergic reaction to laundry detergent
- C. This is a common newborn rash that will resolve after several days
- D. This is likely a bacterial infection requiring antibiotics
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The rash described is typical of erythema toxicum neonatorum, a common and benign newborn rash that resolves on its own within a few days. No treatment is necessary, and the nurse should reassure the mother. Choice A is incorrect as the rash is self-limiting and does not require monitoring for worsening signs or fever. Choice B is incorrect as erythema toxicum neonatorum is not caused by an allergic reaction to laundry detergent. Choice D is incorrect as this rash is not indicative of a bacterial infection that requires antibiotics.
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