HESI RN
Mental Health HESI Quizlet
1. An adolescent client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for self-harming behaviors. Which of the following is a priority nursing intervention?
- A. Assess the client’s suicidal ideation.
- B. Educate the client about healthy coping mechanisms.
- C. Encourage family therapy sessions.
- D. Provide a safe environment free of potential self-harm tools.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for an adolescent admitted for self-harming behaviors is to provide a safe environment free of potential self-harm tools. This intervention aims to prevent immediate harm to the client. Assessing suicidal ideation is important but ensuring physical safety takes precedence. While educating about healthy coping mechanisms is crucial for long-term management, immediate safety is the priority. Family therapy sessions are beneficial for holistic care but are not the immediate priority when the client's safety is at risk.
2. Which actions are likely to help promote the self-esteem of a male client with major depression?
- A. Ask the client about his long-term goals.
- B. Discuss the challenges of his medical condition.
- C. Include the client in determining treatment protocol.
- D. Encourage the client to engage in recreational therapy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Including the client in determining the treatment protocol is the most suitable action to promote the self-esteem of a male client with major depression. This approach empowers the client, involves him in decision-making regarding his care, and fosters a sense of control and self-worth. Option A, asking about his long-term goals, may not directly address his immediate self-esteem needs related to his current condition. Option B, discussing the challenges of his medical condition, may inadvertently focus on negative aspects and potentially lower self-esteem. Option D, encouraging engagement in recreational therapy, is beneficial but may not directly address the client's sense of control and self-worth in decision-making related to his treatment.
3. Narcan was administered to an adult client following a suicide attempt with an overdose of hydrocodone bitartrate (Vicodin). Within 15 minutes, the client is alert and oriented. In planning nursing care, which intervention has the highest priority at this time?
- A. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
- B. Obtain the client’s serum Vicodin level.
- C. Observe the client for further narcotic effects.
- D. Determine the client’s reason for attempting suicide.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Observing the client for further narcotic effects is the priority at this time. It is crucial to monitor the client closely to prevent a relapse of symptoms or potential complications from the overdose. Encouraging fluid intake is important for overall health but not the priority after an overdose. Obtaining serum Vicodin levels may be needed later but does not address the immediate need to monitor for ongoing effects. Determining the reason for the suicide attempt is vital for psychological assessment but should come after ensuring the client's physical stability.
4. The occupational health nurse is working with a female employee who was just notified that her child was involved in a motor vehicle accident (MVA) and taken to the hospital. The employee states, “I can’t believe this. What should I do?” Which response is best for the nurse to provide in this crisis?
- A. Tell me what you think should be done.
- B. How serious was the collision?
- C. What do you think you should do?
- D. Call for transportation to the hospital.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a crisis situation where the female employee's child is involved in a motor vehicle accident (MVA) and taken to the hospital, the most appropriate response for the nurse is to provide immediate practical assistance. Calling for transportation to the hospital ensures that the employee can quickly reach her child in need of urgent medical attention. The other options (A, B, and C) do not address the immediate need for assistance and may not provide the necessary support required in such a critical situation.
5. A client who has a history of bipolar disorder is recovering from a manic episode and is now experiencing depressive symptoms. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Assess the client for suicidal ideation.
- B. Provide a detailed schedule of daily activities.
- C. Discuss the importance of medication adherence.
- D. Encourage the client to engage in group therapy.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Assessing for suicidal ideation is the priority when a client with bipolar disorder is transitioning from a manic episode to a depressive phase. Suicidal ideation is a critical concern during depressive episodes, and ensuring the client's safety is the top priority. Providing a detailed schedule of daily activities (Choice B) may be helpful but is not the immediate priority over assessing for suicidal ideation. Discussing the importance of medication adherence (Choice C) and encouraging group therapy (Choice D) are essential components of care but are secondary to ensuring the client's safety in the context of potential suicidal ideation.
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