Nursing Elites

1. An adolescent client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for self-harming behaviors. Which of the following is a priority nursing intervention?

• A. Assess the client’s suicidal ideation.
• B. Educate the client about healthy coping mechanisms.
• C. Encourage family therapy sessions.
• D. Provide a safe environment free of potential self-harm tools.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for an adolescent admitted for self-harming behaviors is to provide a safe environment free of potential self-harm tools. This intervention aims to prevent immediate harm to the client. Assessing suicidal ideation is important but ensuring physical safety takes precedence. While educating about healthy coping mechanisms is crucial for long-term management, immediate safety is the priority. Family therapy sessions are beneficial for holistic care but are not the immediate priority when the client's safety is at risk.

2. A female client is brought to the emergency department after police officers found her disoriented, disorganized, and confused. The RN also determines that the client is homeless and is exhibiting suspiciousness. The client’s plan of care should include what priority problem?

• A. Acute confusion.
• B. Ineffective community coping.
• C. Disturbed sensory perception.
• D. Self-care deficit.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Acute confusion is the priority problem because it directly impacts the client's safety and functioning. In this scenario, the client is disoriented, disorganized, and confused, which can pose immediate risks to her well-being. Ineffective community coping, disturbed sensory perception, and self-care deficit are not as urgent in this situation. Ineffective community coping focuses on the client's ability to manage stress related to the community, disturbed sensory perception pertains to alterations in sensory input, and self-care deficit involves the inability to perform activities of daily living independently. While these issues may also need addressing, acute confusion takes precedence due to the immediate safety concerns it presents.

3. An elderly client diagnosed with delirium is being treated with antipsychotic medication. Which side effect should the nurse monitor for in this client?

• A. Akathisia
• B. Hallucinations
• C. Orthostatic hypotension
• D. Drowsiness

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct side effect that the nurse should monitor for in an elderly client diagnosed with delirium and treated with antipsychotic medication is orthostatic hypotension. Antipsychotic medications can lead to a drop in blood pressure upon standing, particularly in elderly individuals. Akathisia (choice A) refers to a movement disorder characterized by a feeling of inner restlessness and a compelling need to be in constant motion, which can be a side effect of antipsychotic medications but is not specific to elderly clients with delirium. Hallucinations (choice B) are sensory perceptions that appear real but are created by the mind, and while they can be associated with certain conditions or medications, they are not a common side effect of antipsychotic medications in elderly clients with delirium. Drowsiness (choice D) is a general CNS depressant effect that can occur with antipsychotic medications but is not the specific side effect that the nurse should be monitoring for in this case.

4. A client with major depressive disorder is beginning a new antidepressant medication. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. “It may take several weeks to notice improvement.”
• B. “You should see immediate effects of the medication.”
• C. “You can stop taking the medication once you feel better.”
• D. “Avoid discussing your symptoms with your therapist.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include in the discharge teaching for a client starting a new antidepressant medication is that “It may take several weeks to notice improvement.” This is because antidepressants often require several weeks before the individual starts to feel the full therapeutic effects. Choice B is incorrect because immediate effects are not typically seen with antidepressants. Choice C is incorrect as stopping the medication abruptly can lead to worsening symptoms or withdrawal effects. Choice D is incorrect as open communication with the therapist is crucial for effective management of major depressive disorder.

5. A male client with schizophrenia tells the RN that he is being watched and that the television is speaking directly to him. Which response by the RN is appropriate?

• A. “The television cannot speak to you.”
• B. “That sounds very frightening for you.”
• C. “You should ignore the television.”
• D. “Why do you think the television is talking to you?”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Option B is the correct response because it acknowledges the client's feelings and demonstrates empathy. By stating that the situation sounds frightening, the RN validates the client's experience without denying or reinforcing the delusion. This approach helps build rapport and trust with the client, which is essential in therapeutic communication. Options A and C are dismissive and may invalidate the client's experience, potentially worsening the trust relationship. Option D is confrontational and may make the client defensive, hindering effective communication and rapport-building.

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