after assessing the health care needs of an elementary school the nurse determines that an increased prevalence of pediculosis capitis is a priority p
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Community Health

1. After assessing the health care needs of an elementary school, the nurse determines that an increased prevalence of pediculosis capitis is a priority problem. The nurse develops a 2-month program with the goal to eradicate the condition in the school. The program includes educational pamphlets sent home to parents and regular assessment of children by the school nurse. What action should the nurse implement to evaluate the effectiveness of the program?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Measuring the prevalence of pediculosis capitis among the children after four months is the most appropriate action to evaluate the program's effectiveness. This approach provides data on the program's long-term impact and effectiveness in eradicating the condition. Option A focuses on the teachers' ability, which is not directly related to the program's effectiveness in eradicating the condition. Option B suggests conducting an initial examination, which does not provide information on the program's impact. Option C involves assessing parents' understanding, which is important but does not directly evaluate the program's effectiveness in eradicating pediculosis capitis.

2. The home health nurse visits a young male client with AIDS who has Kaposi's sarcoma and peripheral neuropathies. His parents, who are the caregivers, tell the nurse that their son sleeps most of the time. The nurse assesses that the client is semi-conscious with stable vital signs, cries out in pain when turned or moved, has a Duragesic pain patch in place, and skin lesions that are closed and dried. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client with AIDS is showing signs of being in a critical condition - semi-conscious, in pain, and with stable vital signs. The appropriate intervention for the nurse to implement is to discuss end-of-life decisions with the client's parents. Given the client's symptoms, the presence of a pain patch, and the closed and dried skin lesions, it is essential to address end-of-life care planning. Removing the Duragesic patch without proper authorization can lead to inadequate pain management and should not be done without consulting the healthcare provider. Giving a complete bed bath is not the priority in this situation as it does not address the immediate needs of the client. Calling for ambulance transportation to the hospital immediately may not be necessary if the client is stable; instead, the focus should be on providing appropriate support and having critical discussions about the client's care preferences.

3. A male client leaves his job at a nearby restaurant and visits the health clinic where he is diagnosed with viral conjunctivitis. While receiving discharge instructions from the nurse, the client states that he is feeling much better and plans to return to work for the afternoon shift. How should the nurse respond?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: explain that the client should stay home for the next few days. Viral conjunctivitis is highly contagious, and the client should avoid close contact with others until it resolves. Returning to work while still contagious can lead to the spread of the infection to coworkers and customers. Choice A is incorrect because wearing a face mask may not provide sufficient protection against spreading the virus in a close work environment. Choice B is irrelevant to the situation as the focus should be on the client's health and preventing the spread of the infection. Choice C is also unrelated to the management of viral conjunctivitis and does not address the contagious nature of the condition.

4. A client who is receiving intravenous heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is significantly elevated, indicating a high risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. In this case, the heparin infusion should be stopped immediately to prevent further anticoagulation and an increased bleeding risk. Notifying the healthcare provider is essential to discuss alternative anticoagulation strategies or interventions. Continuing heparin therapy without action could lead to severe bleeding complications. Decreasing or increasing the heparin infusion rate would exacerbate the risk of bleeding, making options A, B, and C incorrect.

5. A community health nurse is conducting a neighborhood discussion group about disaster planning. What information regarding transmission of anthrax should the nurse provide to the group?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Infection is acquired when anthrax spores enter a host. Anthrax is primarily transmitted through spores entering the body, either through the skin, inhalation, or ingestion. Person-to-person transmission of anthrax is extremely rare and not a significant mode of transmission. Choices B and C are incorrect because mature anthrax bacteria do not live dormant on inanimate objects, and spores can survive for extended periods outside a living host. Choice D is incorrect as anthrax is not transmitted by respiratory droplets from person to person.

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