Nursing Elites

1. After assessing the health care needs of an elementary school, the nurse determines that an increased prevalence of pediculosis capitis is a priority problem. The nurse develops a 2-month program with the goal to eradicate the condition in the school. The program includes educational pamphlets sent home to parents and regular assessment of children by the school nurse. What action should the nurse implement to evaluate the effectiveness of the program?

• A. evaluate the teachers' ability to identify pediculosis capitis 2 months after initiation of the program
• B. conduct an initial examination of each child in the school to obtain baseline data
• C. survey parents 3 weeks after pamphlets are sent home to assess their understanding of the condition
• D. measure the prevalence of pediculosis capitis among the children after four months

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Measuring the prevalence of pediculosis capitis among the children after four months is the most appropriate action to evaluate the program's effectiveness. This approach provides data on the program's long-term impact and effectiveness in eradicating the condition. Option A focuses on the teachers' ability, which is not directly related to the program's effectiveness in eradicating the condition. Option B suggests conducting an initial examination, which does not provide information on the program's impact. Option C involves assessing parents' understanding, which is important but does not directly evaluate the program's effectiveness in eradicating pediculosis capitis.

2. The nurse is documenting the medical history of a young adult who was recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. The client smokes 2 packs of cigarettes a day, and his father died of a heart attack at the age of 45. Which annual screening is most important for the nurse to include?

• A. peripheral neuropathy
• B. renal insufficiency
• C. retinopathy
• D. hyperlipidemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most important annual screening for the nurse to include is hyperlipidemia. Given the client's smoking history, family history of premature heart disease, and the increased risk of cardiovascular complications associated with diabetes, screening for hyperlipidemia is crucial. This screening is essential in assessing the client's risk of developing cardiovascular disease, which is a significant concern in this case. Peripheral neuropathy (choice A) is a common long-term complication of diabetes but may not be the most immediate concern in this scenario. Renal insufficiency (choice B) is also a complication of diabetes, but given the client's high cardiovascular risk, hyperlipidemia screening takes priority. Retinopathy (choice C) is an important complication of diabetes affecting the eyes, but in this case, focusing on cardiovascular risk assessment through hyperlipidemia screening is more critical.

3. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with hypokalemia. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Muscle weakness.
• B. Irregular heart rate.
• C. Increased urinary output.
• D. Decreased deep tendon reflexes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Decreased deep tendon reflexes are a critical finding in hypokalemia that indicates severe potassium deficiency affecting neuromuscular function. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent life-threatening complications such as respiratory failure or cardiac arrhythmias. Muscle weakness, irregular heart rate, and increased urinary output are also associated with hypokalemia but do not pose the same level of urgency as decreased deep tendon reflexes.

4. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed enalapril (Vasotec). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will monitor my blood pressure regularly.
• B. I will report any signs of infection to my healthcare provider.
• C. I will avoid using salt substitutes.
• D. I will increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Increasing potassium intake can lead to hyperkalemia, especially in clients taking ACE inhibitors like enalapril. Hyperkalemia is a potential side effect of ACE inhibitors and can be exacerbated by consuming potassium-rich foods. Monitoring blood pressure regularly (A) is important when taking antihypertensive medications. Reporting signs of infection (B) is crucial as ACE inhibitors can lower the immune response. Avoiding salt substitutes (C) is necessary because they may contain potassium chloride, leading to increased potassium levels, which can be harmful in combination with ACE inhibitors.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a suspected stroke. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood pressure of 160/90 mm Hg.
• B. Blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL.
• C. Difficulty speaking.
• D. Temperature of 99.8°F (37.7°C).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Difficulty speaking is a classic symptom of a stroke, indicating a potential blockage of blood flow to the brain. Immediate intervention is crucial to minimize brain damage. While an elevated blood pressure (Choice A) may need management, it is not the most urgent concern in this scenario. A blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL (Choice B) is slightly elevated but does not require immediate intervention for a suspected stroke. A temperature of 99.8°F (37.7°C) (Choice D) falls within the normal range and is not a critical finding in this context.

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