Nursing Elites

1. After assessing the health care needs of an elementary school, the nurse determines that an increased prevalence of pediculosis capitis is a priority problem. The nurse develops a 2-month program with the goal to eradicate the condition in the school. The program includes educational pamphlets sent home to parents and regular assessment of children by the school nurse. What action should the nurse implement to evaluate the effectiveness of the program?

• A. evaluate the teachers' ability to identify pediculosis capitis 2 months after initiation of the program
• B. conduct an initial examination of each child in the school to obtain baseline data
• C. survey parents 3 weeks after pamphlets are sent home to assess their understanding of the condition
• D. measure the prevalence of pediculosis capitis among the children after four months

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Measuring the prevalence of pediculosis capitis among the children after four months is the most appropriate action to evaluate the program's effectiveness. This approach provides data on the program's long-term impact and effectiveness in eradicating the condition. Option A focuses on the teachers' ability, which is not directly related to the program's effectiveness in eradicating the condition. Option B suggests conducting an initial examination, which does not provide information on the program's impact. Option C involves assessing parents' understanding, which is important but does not directly evaluate the program's effectiveness in eradicating pediculosis capitis.

2. A client with a history of epilepsy is admitted with status epilepticus. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
• B. Lorazepam (Ativan)
• C. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
• D. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, the initial medication of choice is a benzodiazepine such as lorazepam (Ativan) to rapidly terminate the seizure activity. Lorazepam acts quickly and effectively in stopping seizures. Phenytoin (Dilantin) is often used as a second-line agent for status epilepticus, and carbamazepine (Tegretol) is not typically indicated for the acute treatment of status epilepticus. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is a pain reliever and antipyretic but is not used in the treatment of status epilepticus.

3. A client with chronic renal failure is scheduled for hemodialysis in the morning. Which pre-dialysis medication should the nurse withhold until after the dialysis treatment is completed?

• A. Calcium carbonate (Os-Cal)
• B. Furosemide (Lasix)
• C. Spironolactone (Aldactone)
• D. Multivitamins

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Furosemide (Lasix). Furosemide is a diuretic that promotes fluid loss, and giving it before hemodialysis can lead to excessive fluid loss during the treatment, potentially causing hypovolemia. Withholding furosemide until after the dialysis session helps in preventing this complication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because calcium carbonate, spironolactone, and multivitamins are not typically contraindicated before hemodialysis in clients with chronic renal failure.

4. Following an emergency Cesarean delivery, the nurse encourages the new mother to breastfeed her newborn. The client asks why she should breastfeed now. Which information should the nurse provide?

• A. To bond with the baby.
• B. To help the baby latch on better.
• C. To stimulate contraction of the uterus.
• D. To promote milk production.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'To stimulate contraction of the uterus.' After delivery, breastfeeding helps in stimulating the release of oxytocin, which triggers the contraction of the uterus. This contraction is crucial to prevent uterine hemorrhage and facilitate the involution process. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While breastfeeding can indeed help in bonding with the baby and promoting milk production, in the immediate postpartum period after a Cesarean section, the priority is to ensure uterine contraction to prevent complications.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a suspected pulmonary embolism. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Chest pain.
• B. Shortness of breath.
• C. Tachycardia.
• D. Cyanosis.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cyanosis is a late sign of hypoxemia and indicates severe oxygen deprivation, necessitating immediate intervention in a client with a suspected pulmonary embolism. Chest pain, shortness of breath, and tachycardia are also concerning symptoms in pulmonary embolism; however, cyanosis signifies critical oxygen deficiency and warrants urgent attention to prevent further complications.

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