HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone
1. After a spider bite on the lower extremity, a client is admitted to treat an infection that is spreading up the leg. Which admission assessment findings should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Swollen lymph nodes in the groin
- B. Core body temperature of 100.5°F
- C. All of the above
- D. Elevated white blood cell count
Correct answer: C
Rationale: All of the above findings should be reported to the healthcare provider for prompt evaluation and treatment. Swollen lymph nodes in the groin indicate regional lymphatic involvement, a core body temperature of 100.5°F suggests a mild fever response, and an elevated white blood cell count indicates an ongoing infection process. These findings collectively point towards the spread of infection and require immediate attention to prevent further complications.
2. A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube following lung surgery. What is the most important intervention to ensure the chest tube functions properly?
- A. Clamp the tube if there is excessive drainage
- B. Empty the drainage chamber every 2 hours
- C. Keep the drainage system below chest level
- D. Milk the tube to prevent clots from forming
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Keeping the chest tube drainage system below chest level ensures that gravity assists with drainage and prevents fluid or air from flowing back into the pleural space, which could compromise lung function. Clamping the tube if there is excessive drainage (choice A) is incorrect as it can lead to a buildup of pressure and compromise the drainage system. Emptying the drainage chamber every 2 hours (choice B) is important but not as crucial as maintaining the drainage system below chest level. Milking the tube to prevent clots from forming (choice D) is incorrect and could lead to complications such as tube occlusion or damage to the tissue.
3. During a thyroid storm, what is the nurse's priority intervention for a client experiencing increased heart rate and tremors?
- A. Administer antithyroid medications as prescribed.
- B. Administer a beta-blocker to control the heart rate.
- C. Monitor the client's temperature closely.
- D. Prepare the client for an emergency thyroidectomy.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer antithyroid medications as prescribed during a thyroid storm. Antithyroid medications help control the overproduction of thyroid hormones, which is crucial in managing symptoms such as increased heart rate and tremors. These symptoms can be life-threatening if not promptly addressed. Administering a beta-blocker (Choice B) may help control the heart rate, but addressing the underlying cause with antithyroid medications is the priority. Monitoring the client's temperature (Choice C) is important but not the priority intervention during a thyroid storm. Lastly, preparing the client for an emergency thyroidectomy (Choice D) is not the initial intervention for managing symptoms of a thyroid storm.
4. A client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed ciprofloxacin. What is the nurse's priority teaching?
- A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
- B. Avoid direct sunlight while taking the medication.
- C. Take the medication with meals to prevent nausea.
- D. Discontinue the medication if you experience dizziness.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Take the medication with a full glass of water.' It is crucial for the nurse to teach the client to take ciprofloxacin with a full glass of water to prevent crystalluria, a potential side effect of the medication. Choice B is incorrect because ciprofloxacin does not require avoiding direct sunlight. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medication with meals is not necessary to prevent nausea. Choice D is incorrect as dizziness is not a common reason to discontinue ciprofloxacin.
5. A client who had a vasectomy is in the post-recovery unit at an outpatient clinic. Which of these points is most important to be reinforced by the nurse?
- A. Until the healthcare provider has determined that your ejaculate doesn't contain sperm, continue to use another form of contraception.
- B. This procedure doesn't impede the production of male hormones or the production of sperm in the testicles. The sperm can no longer enter your semen, and no sperm are in your ejaculate.
- C. After your vasectomy, strenuous activity needs to be avoided for at least 48 hours. If your work doesn't involve hard physical labor, you can return to your job as soon as you feel up to it. The stitches generally dissolve in seven to ten days.
- D. The healthcare provider at this clinic recommends rest, ice, an athletic supporter, or over-the-counter pain medication to relieve any discomfort.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most important point to reinforce after a vasectomy is to continue using contraception until the healthcare provider confirms the absence of sperm in the ejaculate. Choice A is correct because it emphasizes the necessity of another form of contraception until sperm absence is confirmed. Choice B is incorrect because it focuses on how a vasectomy works anatomically rather than the need for ongoing contraception. Choice C is incorrect as it discusses post-vasectomy care but does not address the need for continued contraception. Choice D is also incorrect as it refers to general post-procedure recommendations but does not highlight the crucial aspect of using contraception until sperm absence is confirmed.
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