NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Questions
1. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L (3.2 mmol/L) is reported for a patient with cirrhosis who has scheduled doses of spironolactone (Aldactone) and furosemide (Lasix) due. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Administer both drugs.
- B. Administer the spironolactone.
- C. Withhold the spironolactone and administer the furosemide.
- D. Withhold both drugs until discussed with the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is low (hypokalemia), which can be concerning in a patient with cirrhosis who is already at risk for electrolyte imbalances. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can help increase the patient's potassium level and correct the hypokalemia. Therefore, the appropriate action for the nurse to take in this scenario is to administer the spironolactone. Withholding the spironolactone could further lower the potassium level. Furosemide, on the other hand, is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss and worsen hypokalemia; hence, it should be withheld until the nurse discusses the situation with the healthcare provider. While the healthcare provider should be informed about the low potassium value, immediate administration of spironolactone is necessary to address the hypokalemia in this patient population.
2. A pregnant woman who is 36 weeks' pregnant and has hepatitis B is being informed by a nurse. Which of the following statements from the client indicates understanding of this condition?
- A. Now I know my baby will need a cesarean section.
- B. My baby will need two shots soon after birth.
- C. I will not be able to breastfeed.
- D. My baby's father does not need testing; I know I am the one with hepatitis.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'My baby will need two shots soon after birth.' A baby born to a mother with hepatitis B should receive two injections soon after birth to reduce the risk of contracting the disease. Within the first 12 hours post-birth, the baby should receive the first hepatitis B vaccine and hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) for additional protection. Option A is incorrect because the need for a cesarean section is not directly related to the mother's hepatitis B status. Option C is incorrect as breastfeeding can be safe if managed properly. Option D is incorrect as the baby's father should also be tested for hepatitis B to prevent transmission to the newborn.
3. After repair of an inguinal hernia, the infant is being cared for. Which assessment finding indicates that the surgical repair was effective?
- A. A clean, dry incision
- B. Abdominal distension
- C. An adequate flow of urine
- D. Absence of inguinal swelling with crying
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The absence of inguinal swelling when the infant cries or strains indicates that the surgical repair of the inguinal hernia was effective. Inguinal swelling typically occurs with crying or straining in cases of this condition. A clean, dry incision signifies the absence of wound infection post-surgery but does not directly indicate the effectiveness of the hernia repair. Abdominal distension suggests a gastrointestinal issue unrelated to the hernia repair. An adequate flow of urine is not specific to evaluating the success of inguinal hernia repair.
4. The patient is being taught about pulmonary function testing (PFT). Which statement made by the patient indicates effective teaching?
- A. I will use my inhaler right before the test.
- B. I won't eat or drink anything 8 hours before the test.
- C. I should inhale deeply and blow out as hard as I can during the test.
- D. My blood pressure and pulse will be checked every 15 minutes after the test.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'I should inhale deeply and blow out as hard as I can during the test.' This statement indicates effective teaching because for PFT, the patient needs to inhale deeply and exhale forcefully. This maneuver helps in assessing lung function accurately. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Using an inhaler right before the test may alter the test results, which is not recommended. Fasting for 8 hours is not necessary for a PFT, and checking blood pressure and pulse every 15 minutes after the test is not part of the PFT procedure.
5. An 80-year-old patient is admitted with dyspnea, dependent edema, rales, and distended neck veins. As the nurse monitors the patient, he becomes increasingly short of breath and begins to have cardiac dysrhythmias. The most critical intervention for this patient is to:
- A. Ensure his airway is open and unobstructed.
- B. Apply oxygen to maintain his oxygen saturation above 94%.
- C. Administer Dobutamine to increase cardiac output.
- D. Start an IV for monitoring fluid intake.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a patient presenting with dyspnea, dependent edema, rales, distended neck veins, and developing cardiac dysrhythmias, the priority intervention is to ensure the airway is open and unobstructed. Maintaining an open airway is crucial for adequate ventilation and oxygenation, especially in a patient showing signs of impending respiratory distress and cardiac compromise. While applying oxygen to maintain oxygen saturation is important, ensuring airway patency takes precedence as it directly impacts the patient's ability to breathe. Administering Dobutamine may be necessary to improve cardiac output; however, addressing the airway first is essential to prevent further respiratory distress and worsening dysrhythmias. Starting an IV for monitoring fluid intake is not the most critical intervention in this scenario compared to ensuring airway patency and oxygenation.
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