Nursing Elites

1. A postoperative patient who had surgery for a perforated gastric ulcer has been receiving nasogastric suction for 3 days. The patient now has a serum sodium level of 127 mEq/L (127 mmol/L). Which prescribed therapy should the nurse question?

• A. Infuse 5% dextrose in water at 125 mL/hr.
• B. Administer IV morphine sulfate 4 mg every 2 hours PRN.
• C. Give IV metoclopramide (Reglan) 10 mg every 6 hours PRN for nausea.
• D. Administer 3% saline if serum sodium decreases to less than 128 mEq/L.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should question the prescription to infuse 5% dextrose in water at 125 mL/hr because the patient's gastric suction has been depleting electrolytes, leading to hyponatremia. Therefore, the IV solution should include electrolyte replacement. Solutions like lactated Ringer’s solution would usually be ordered. The other choices (B, C, and D) are appropriate for a postoperative patient with gastric suction, addressing pain management, nausea control, and correcting hyponatremia if it drops below a certain level.

2. The nurse is caring for a patient with a massive burn injury and possible hypovolemia. Which assessment data will be of most concern to the nurse?

• A. Blood pressure is 90/40 mm Hg.
• B. Urine output is 30 mL over the last hour.
• C. Oral fluid intake is 100 mL over the last 8 hours.
• D. There is prolonged skin tenting over the sternum.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Blood pressure is 90/40 mm Hg." A low blood pressure reading of 90/40 mm Hg indicates that the patient may be developing hypovolemic shock due to intravascular fluid loss from the burn injury. This finding is of utmost concern as it suggests systemic hypoperfusion, requiring immediate intervention to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D also indicate signs of dehydration and the need to increase fluid intake; however, they are not as urgent as addressing the hypotension and potential shock presented in choice A.

3. A patient comes to the clinic complaining of frequent, watery stools for the last 2 days. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Obtain the baseline weight
• B. Check the patient’s blood pressure
• C. Draw blood for serum electrolyte levels
• D. Ask about any extremity numbness or tingling

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the patient’s blood pressure. Given the patient's symptoms of frequent, watery stools, there is a concern for fluid volume deficit. Assessing the blood pressure helps determine the patient's perfusion status, which is crucial in managing fluid volume deficits. While obtaining baseline weight, drawing blood for serum electrolyte levels, and asking about extremity numbness or tingling are important assessments, checking the blood pressure takes precedence as it provides immediate information on the patient's circulatory status.

4. A 54-year-old male client and his wife were informed this morning that he has terminal cancer. Which nursing intervention is likely to be most beneficial?

• A. Ask the wife how she would like to participate in the client's care
• B. Provide the wife with information about hospice
• C. Encourage the wife to visit after painful treatments are completed
• D. Refer the wife to a support group for family members of those dying of cancer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most beneficial nursing intervention in this situation is to ask the wife how she would like to participate in the client's care. Involving the spouse in the care of the terminally ill client can provide comfort, support, and a sense of contribution during a challenging time. Providing information about hospice (B) is important but may not be the immediate priority. Encouraging the wife to visit after treatments are completed (C) may delay her involvement in the care. Referring her to a support group (D) is a good idea but might be more suitable at a later stage.

5. After receiving change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first?

• A. Patient with a serum potassium level of 5.0 mEq/L who is complaining of abdominal cramping
• B. Patient with a serum sodium level of 145 mEq/L who has a dry mouth and is asking for a glass of water
• C. Patient with a serum magnesium level of 1.1 mEq/L who has tremors and hyperactive deep tendon reflexes
• D. Patient with a serum phosphorus level of 4.5 mg/dL who has multiple soft tissue calcium-phosphate precipitates

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is patient C with a serum magnesium level of 1.1 mEq/L who has tremors and hyperactive deep tendon reflexes. The low magnesium level and neuromuscular irritability suggest that the patient may be at risk for seizures, which are life-threatening. Assessing and addressing this patient's condition promptly is crucial to prevent complications. Patients A, B, and D have mild electrolyte disturbances or symptoms that require attention, but they are not at immediate risk for life-threatening complications like seizures, unlike patient C.

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