Nursing Elites

1. A patient's blood pressure is 118/82 mm Hg. The patient asks the nurse, "What do the numbers mean?"? Which is the best reply by the nurse?

• A. "The numbers are within the normal range and are nothing to worry about."?
• B. "The bottom number is the diastolic pressure and reflects the pressure in the arteries when the heart relaxes."?
• C. "The top number is the systolic blood pressure and reflects the pressure of the blood against the arteries when the heart contracts."?
• D. "The concept of blood pressure can be complex. The primary thing to be concerned about is the top number, or the systolic blood pressure."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The systolic pressure is the maximum pressure felt on the artery during left ventricular contraction, or systole. The diastolic pressure is the elastic recoil, or resting, pressure that the blood constantly exerts in between each contraction. The nurse should answer the patient's question in terms they can understand and not just say it is normal and there is nothing to worry about. The diastolic pressure is the pressure in the vessels when the heart is at rest, not the stroke volume. Both the systolic and diastolic blood pressure are important. Choice A is incorrect as providing a vague reassurance does not address the patient's query. Choice B is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the diastolic pressure as reflecting stroke volume, which is incorrect. Choice D is incorrect as it oversimplifies the explanation, focusing solely on the top number without providing a complete understanding of blood pressure.

2. When providing endotracheal suctioning, for how long should the nurse suction the endotracheal tube of an intubated client on a ventilator at a time?

• A. Five seconds or less
• B. Ten seconds or less
• C. At least 30 seconds
• D. No longer than 60 seconds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When providing endotracheal suctioning, the nurse should suction for no longer than ten seconds at a time. Suctioning for longer than ten seconds may cause hypoxia or bronchospasm. Extended suctioning may also place the client at risk of injury to the bronchial and tracheal structures. Choices C and D suggest prolonged suctioning durations that can lead to adverse effects on the client. Choice A, suctioning for five seconds or less, may not be adequate to clear secretions effectively, making choice B the most appropriate duration for safe and efficient suctioning in this scenario.

3. What is the primary purpose of emergency planning?

• A. Comply with the laws of the state.
• B. Comply with the laws of the U.S.
• C. Comply with both state and U.S. laws
• D. Maintain safety

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The primary purpose of emergency planning is to ensure and maintain the safety of people and the preservation of objects, such as buildings and personal possessions during emergencies or disasters. While compliance with state and federal laws regarding emergency planning is important, the main goal is to prioritize life and safety. Choices A, B, and C focus on legal compliance, which is necessary but secondary to the fundamental objective of safeguarding lives and property in emergency situations.

4. A patient is in the office for a cyst removal and is very anxious about the procedure. Which of the following descriptions of his respirations would be expected?

• A. Bradypnea
• B. Orthopnea
• C. Tachypnea
• D. Dyspnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tachypnea is defined as a rapid, quick, and shallow respiration rate. When a patient is anxious, they may hyperventilate, leading to tachypnea. Bradypnea (Choice A) is slow breathing, which is not expected in an anxious patient. Orthopnea (Choice B) is difficulty breathing while lying down and is not directly related to anxiety. Dyspnea (Choice D) is shortness of breath, which may not be the primary respiratory pattern seen in an anxious patient undergoing a procedure. Therefore, the correct choice is tachypnea as it aligns with the expected respiratory response to anxiety.

5. When is a physician likely to assess turgor?

• A. When iron deficiency is suspected.
• B. When heart and lung issues are suspected.
• C. When dehydration is suspected.
• D. None of the above.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Skin turgor is assessed when dehydration is suspected. To evaluate skin turgor, a physician pinches the skin and observes how quickly it returns to its normal position. If the skin stays folded for an extended period, it indicates dehydration. Assessing turgor helps determine a patient's hydration status. Choice A is incorrect because skin turgor is not used to assess iron deficiency. Choice B is incorrect as turgor is not related to heart and lung issues, but rather hydration status. Choice D is incorrect as turgor assessment is relevant when dehydration is suspected.

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