Nursing Elites

1. A client has applied a cold pack to their arm to help decrease swelling and inflammation after an injury. Which of the following signs indicates that the cold pack should be removed?

• A. The skin on the arm appears mottled
• B. The cold pack has been in place for 10 minutes
• C. The client complains of feeling nauseated
• D. The capillary refill in the area distal to the arm is 2 seconds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When using a cold pack for therapeutic purposes, it is essential to monitor the site to prevent tissue damage. Prolonged use of cold therapy can lead to pale, mottled skin with a bluish appearance. This change in skin color indicates poor circulation, and the cold pack should be removed immediately to prevent tissue injury. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the duration of cold pack application, client complaints of nausea, and capillary refill time do not specifically indicate the need for the cold pack to be removed due to potential tissue damage.

2. A client's intake and output are being calculated by a nurse. During the last shift, the client consumed � cup of gelatin, a skinless chicken breast, 1 cup of green beans, and 300 cc of water. The client also urinated 250 cc and had 2 bowel movements. What is this client's intake and output for this shift?

• A. 420 cc intake, 250 cc output
• B. 300 cc intake, 250 cc output
• C. 550 cc intake, 550 cc output
• D. 300 cc intake, 550 cc output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 420 cc intake and 250 cc output for this shift. To calculate the intake, � cup of gelatin (approximately 120 cc) and 300 cc of water should be added together, resulting in 420 cc. Food intake like the chicken breast and green beans is not converted to cc's but may be documented for hospital protocol. Output includes urine (250 cc in this case) and other forms like vomit, diarrhea, or gastric suction. Bowel movements are not converted to cc's, but the nurse may need to document the number of stools passed. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the intake and output calculations based on the information provided.

3. Where is the pulse point located on the top of the foot?

• A. the dorsalis pedis
• B. This is the pulse point checked in patients with peripheral vascular problems.
• C. This pulse point may be absent in some patients due to a congenital anomaly.
• D. All of the above.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The pulse point located on the top of the foot is known as the dorsalis pedis pulse point. It is situated on the arch of the foot, slightly lateral to the midline. This pulse point is commonly examined in patients with peripheral vascular problems to assess blood flow adequacy. Additionally, some individuals may not have this pulse point due to a congenital anomaly. Therefore, all the given statements are correct in relation to the dorsalis pedis pulse point, making 'All of the above' the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are all individually valid characteristics of the dorsalis pedis pulse point, hence selecting 'All of the above' as the correct answer is appropriate.

4. During the general survey, what action is a component of the assessment?

• A. Observing the patient's body stature and nutritional status
• B. Interpreting the subjective information reported by the patient
• C. Measuring the patient's temperature, pulse, respirations, and blood pressure
• D. Observing specific body systems during the physical assessment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the general survey, the nurse assesses the patient's overall appearance, body structure, mobility, and behavior, which includes observing body stature and nutritional status. Interpreting subjective information reported by the patient is part of the subjective data collection process and not the general survey. Measuring vital signs like temperature, pulse, respirations, and blood pressure is part of a focused physical examination, not the general survey. Additionally, observing specific body systems while performing a physical assessment is more specific and focused than the general survey.

5. Why should direct care providers avoid glued-on artificial nails?

• A. Interfere with dexterity of the fingers.
• B. Could fall off in a patient's bed.
• C. Harbor microorganisms.
• D. Can scratch a patient.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Direct care providers, including nurses, should avoid glued-on artificial nails because studies have shown that artificial nails, especially when cracked, broken, or split, create crevices where microorganisms can thrive and multiply. This can lead to an increased risk of transmitting infections to patients. Therefore, the primary reason for avoiding glued-on artificial nails is their potential to harbor harmful microorganisms, making option C the correct choice. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because while they may present some issues, the primary concern is the risk of microbial contamination associated with artificial nails.

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