Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary purpose of a patient care meeting or conference?

• A. the patient's ability to pay for the costs of their care
• B. how the healthcare team can best meet the patient's needs
• C. the patient's physical status and condition
• D. the patient's psychosocial status and condition

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary purpose of a patient care meeting or conference is to determine how the healthcare team can best meet the patient's needs. These meetings involve discussions among healthcare professionals to tailor the care plan to the specific needs and preferences of the patient. Option A is incorrect because financial discussions are generally not the primary focus of patient care meetings. Option C is incorrect as the patient's physical status is usually already known and is not the primary purpose of the meeting. Option D is incorrect as psychosocial aspects, while important, are not the sole focus of the meeting, which is primarily about addressing the patient's overall needs and preferences.

2. When providing endotracheal suctioning, for how long should the nurse suction the endotracheal tube of an intubated client on a ventilator at a time?

• A. Five seconds or less
• B. Ten seconds or less
• C. At least 30 seconds
• D. No longer than 60 seconds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When providing endotracheal suctioning, the nurse should suction for no longer than ten seconds at a time. Suctioning for longer than ten seconds may cause hypoxia or bronchospasm. Extended suctioning may also place the client at risk of injury to the bronchial and tracheal structures. Choices C and D suggest prolonged suctioning durations that can lead to adverse effects on the client. Choice A, suctioning for five seconds or less, may not be adequate to clear secretions effectively, making choice B the most appropriate duration for safe and efficient suctioning in this scenario.

3. Which of the following descriptors is most appropriate to use when stating the 'problem' part of a nursing diagnosis?

• A. Grimacing
• B. Anxiety
• C. Oxygenation saturation 93%
• D. Output 500 mL in 8 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The problem part of a nursing diagnosis in the context of nursing care plans should focus on the client's response to a life process, event, or stressor. This response is what is used to identify the nursing diagnosis. 'Anxiety' is the most appropriate descriptor for the problem part of a nursing diagnosis as it reflects a psychological response that can be addressed by nursing interventions. 'Grimacing' is a physical manifestation and not the problem itself. 'Oxygenation saturation 93%' and 'Output 500 mL in 8 hours' are data points or cues that a nurse would use to formulate the nursing diagnostic statement, not the actual problem being addressed.

4. The student observes a patient with no breathing problems. Which action by the student indicates a need to review respiratory assessment skills?

• A. The student starts at the apices of the lungs and moves to the bases.
• B. The student compares breath sounds from side to side, avoiding bony areas.
• C. The student places the stethoscope over the posterior chest and listens during expiration.
• D. The student instructs the patient to breathe slowly and a little more deeply than normal through the mouth.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Listening only during inspiration instead of both inspiration and expiration indicates a need for a review of respiratory assessment skills. During chest auscultation, it is essential to listen to at least one cycle of inspiration and expiration at each placement of the stethoscope. Instructing the patient to breathe slowly and a little deeper than normal through the mouth is a correct practice during auscultation. The correct sequence for lung auscultation is from the apices to the bases, comparing breath sounds bilaterally, avoiding bony areas. It is crucial to place the stethoscope over lung tissue rather than bony prominences to accurately assess lung sounds.

5. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using a dry heat application?

• A. Dry heat is more likely to cause burns than moist heat
• B. Dry heat does not penetrate deeply into the tissues
• C. Dry heat causes the skin to dry out more quickly
• D. Dry heat can quickly cause skin breakdown

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that dry heat causes the skin to dry out more quickly. When comparing dry and moist heat applications, dry heat is less likely to cause burns and skin breakdown. However, one of the disadvantages of dry heat is that it does not penetrate deeply into the tissues and may lead to faster drying out of the skin. This can have negative effects on skin integrity and overall comfort during therapy. Choice A is incorrect because dry heat is less likely to cause burns than moist heat. Choice B is incorrect as dry heat may not penetrate deeply into tissues. Choice D is incorrect as dry heat is less likely to cause skin breakdown compared to moist heat.

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