NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Predictor Exam
1. A patient has come to the office for a blood draw. The patient starts to sweat and is very anxious. Which of the following would be the BEST way to proceed?
- A. Do not perform the procedure. Notify the physician of the reason why.
- B. Perform the procedure but pay close attention for signs of potential syncope.
- C. Allow the patient to reschedule for a time when he isn't as anxious.
- D. Have the physician draw the blood.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the scenario where a patient is sweating and anxious, it is important to assess for signs of potential syncope (fainting) while proceeding with the blood draw. If the patient does not exhibit signs of fainting, the phlebotomy procedure can be performed safely. Postponing the procedure may not address the patient's anxiety and inconvenience them. Having the physician draw the blood is not necessary if the phlebotomist can handle the situation effectively.
2. During an examination, the nurse notices that a female patient has a round "moon"? face, central trunk obesity, and a cervical hump. Her skin is fragile with bruises. The nurse determines that the patient likely has which condition?
- A. Gigantism
- B. Acromegaly
- C. Cushing syndrome
- D. Marfan syndrome
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Cushing syndrome is characterized by weight gain and edema with central trunk and cervical obesity (buffalo hump) and a round, plethoric face (moon face). Excessive catabolism in Cushing syndrome causes muscle wasting, weakness, thin arms and legs, reduced height, and thin, fragile skin with purple abdominal striae, bruising, and acne. Gigantism is characterized by increased height and weight and delayed sexual development, which are not present in the patient. Acromegaly results from excessive growth hormone secretion in adulthood, leading to bone overgrowth in specific areas like the face, head, hands, and feet. Marfan syndrome is an inherited connective tissue disorder characterized by a tall, thin stature and distinct features not seen in this patient. The combination of signs described in the question aligns with the clinical presentation of Cushing syndrome.
3. What is an attack using microorganisms such as bacteria or viral agents with the intent to harm others called?
- A. Assimilation
- B. Defense intervention
- C. Bioterrorism
- D. Environmental remediation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Bioterrorism is the act of using harmful agents like bacteria or viruses with the intention to harm others. In the context of healthcare, nurses may be involved in disaster response if bioterrorism weapons affect the community. Choice A, assimilation, refers to the process of absorbing and integrating information or ideas. Choice B, defense intervention, does not specifically relate to the intentional use of microorganisms to harm others. Choice D, environmental remediation, involves the process of cleaning up pollution or contamination in the environment, which is unrelated to the deliberate use of pathogens for harmful purposes.
4. A client has died approximately one hour ago. The nurse notes that the client's temperature has decreased in the last hour since their death. Which of the following processes explains this phenomenon?
- A. Rigor mortis
- B. Postmortem decomposition
- C. Algor mortis
- D. Livor mortis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Algor mortis occurs after death when the body's circulation stops, and the client's temperature begins to fall. The client's temperature will drop by approximately 1.8 degrees per hour until it reaches room temperature. During algor mortis, the client's skin gradually loses its elasticity. Rigor mortis refers to the stiffening of the body after death due to chemical changes in the muscles. Postmortem decomposition is the breakdown of tissues after death. Livor mortis is the pooling of blood in the dependent parts of the body, causing a purple-red discoloration.
5. The nurse is taking an initial blood pressure reading on a 72-year-old patient with documented hypertension. How should the nurse proceed?
- A. Cuff should be placed on the patient's arm and inflated 30 mm Hg above the point at which the palpated pulse disappears.
- B. Cuff should be inflated to 200 mm Hg in an attempt to obtain the most accurate systolic reading.
- C. Cuff should be inflated 30 mm Hg above the patient's pulse rate.
- D. After confirming the patient's previous blood pressure readings, the cuff should be inflated 30 mm Hg above the highest systolic reading recorded.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When measuring blood pressure, it's important to account for the possibility of an auscultatory gap, which occurs in about 5% of individuals, particularly those with hypertension due to a noncompliant arterial system. To detect an auscultatory gap, the cuff should be inflated 20 to 30 mm Hg beyond the point at which the palpated pulse disappears. This ensures an accurate measurement of blood pressure by overcoming the potential gap in sounds. Choice A is correct as it follows this guideline. Choices B and C are incorrect because inflating the cuff to 200 mm Hg or above the patient's pulse rate does not address the specific issue of an auscultatory gap. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on the patient's previous readings rather than the current measurement technique needed to detect an auscultatory gap.
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