Nursing Elites

1. A client with expressive aphasia is pointing wildly at the bath water but unable to speak. Which response from the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Is something wrong with the bath water?
• B. Just calm down, we'll finish your bath soon.
• C. Are you trying to tell me something?
• D. Shall I turn on the television?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A client with expressive aphasia faces difficulty expressing themselves verbally but can understand others. In this scenario, the client's gestures indicate a communication attempt. The nurse's best response is to directly address the potential issue the client is indicating, which is the bath water. Option A acknowledges the client's non-verbal communication and seeks to address their concern. Choices B, C, and D do not directly address the client's attempt to communicate about the bath water, which is the focal point of the interaction.

2. Which of the following is classified as a prerenal condition that affects urinary elimination?

• A. Nephrotoxic medications
• B. Pericardial tamponade
• C. Neurogenic bladder
• D. Polycystic kidney disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A prerenal condition is one that causes reduced urinary elimination by affecting the blood flow to the kidneys. Pericardial tamponade is a condition that impacts the heart's ability to pump sufficient blood, leading to decreased blood flow to vital organs such as the kidneys. This reduction in blood flow to the kidneys can result in decreased urine production. The other choices, such as nephrotoxic medications, neurogenic bladder, and polycystic kidney disease, do not primarily affect the blood flow to the kidneys and are not classified as prerenal conditions that impact urinary elimination.

3. A client in a long-term care facility has developed reddened skin over the sacrum, which has cracked and started to blister. The nurse confirms that the client has not been assisted with turning while in bed. Which stage of pressure ulcer is this client exhibiting?

• A. Stage I
• B. Stage II
• C. Stage III
• D. Stage IV

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client is exhibiting a stage II pressure ulcer. A stage II pressure ulcer develops as a partial thickness wound that affects both the epidermis and the dermal layers of skin. This stage can present with red skin, blisters, or cracking, appearing shallow and moist. However, the ulcer does not extend to the underlying tissues at this stage. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect as Stage I ulcers involve non-blanchable redness of intact skin. Choices C (Stage III) and D (Stage IV) are incorrect as they involve more severe tissue damage, extending into deeper layers of the skin and underlying tissues, which is not the case in this scenario.

4. A 1-month-old infant has a head measurement of 34 cm and a chest circumference of 32 cm. Based on the interpretation of these findings, what action would the nurse take?

• A. Refer the infant to a physician for further evaluation.
• B. Consider these findings normal for a 1-month-old infant.
• C. Expect the chest circumference to be greater than the head circumference.
• D. Ask the parent to return in 2 weeks to re-evaluate the head and chest circumferences.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In infants, a normal head measurement is approximately 32 to 38 cm, and it is usually around 2 cm larger than the chest circumference. These measurements vary with age; between 6 months and 2 years, both measurements are approximately the same, and after age 2 years, the chest circumference becomes greater than the head circumference. Given that the 1-month-old infant's head measurement is within the typical range and slightly larger than the chest circumference, the nurse should consider these findings normal. There is no indication to refer the infant for further evaluation or to have the parent return for re-evaluation in 2 weeks, as these measurements fall within the expected parameters for a 1-month-old infant.

5. The nurse is preparing to assess a patient’s abdomen by palpation. How should the nurse proceed?

• A. Avoid palpating reportedly “tender” areas as this may cause pain.
• B. Palpate tender areas quickly to minimize patient discomfort.
• C. Initiate the assessment with deep palpation while encouraging the patient to relax and take deep breaths.
• D. Begin the assessment with light palpation to detect surface characteristics and to acclimate the patient to touch.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct approach is to begin the assessment with light palpation to detect surface characteristics and to acclimate the patient to touch. This allows the nurse to first assess surface features before proceeding to deeper palpation. Starting with light palpation also helps the patient become more comfortable with being touched, creating a smoother examination experience. Palpating tender areas quickly, as suggested in choice B, can increase patient discomfort. Deep palpation, as in choice C, is typically performed after light palpation to avoid discomfort and ensure proper assessment. Avoiding palpation of tender areas first, as in choice A, helps prevent causing unnecessary pain and should be done towards the end of the assessment.

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