Nursing Elites

1. A client has fallen asleep in his bed in the hospital. His heart rate is 65 bpm, his muscles are relaxed, and he is difficult to arouse. Which stage of the sleep cycle is this client experiencing?

• A. Stage 1
• B. Stage 2
• C. Stage 3
• D. Stage 4

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client in this scenario is experiencing stage 3 of the sleep cycle. In stage 3, the individual has moved into deeper stages of sleep, making it difficult to arouse. Characteristics of stage 3 include relaxed muscles, a decrease in vital signs, and being very still. Stage 3 is a phase of non-REM sleep where the client progresses towards REM sleep and vivid dreams. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Stage 1 is characterized by light sleep, stage 2 is a slightly deeper sleep with sleep spindles and K-complexes, and stage 4 is the deepest stage of sleep with the slowest brain waves.

2. What is the first aid for frostbite?

• A. Running cold water over the affected area. Warm or hot water will shock the area and cause more tissue damage.
• B. Run warm water over the area to rapidly rewarm the affected area.
• C. Run hot water over the area to warm the area as quickly as possible.
• D. Cover the area with a blanket, using a heating pad if the blanket isn't warm enough.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: First aid for frostbite involves running cold water over the affected area. It is important to avoid warm or hot water as it can shock the area and cause further tissue damage. Warm water should not be used to rapidly rewarm the affected area. Similarly, hot water should also be avoided as it can warm the area too quickly and potentially cause harm. Covering the area with a blanket and using a heating pad may not be effective and can even lead to more damage. Seeking medical assistance is crucial if the tissue appears necrotic to prevent further complications.

3. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for a client with a diagnosis of Risk for Activity Intolerance?

• A. Perform nursing activities throughout the entire shift
• B. Assess for signs of increased muscle tone
• C. Minimize environmental noise
• D. Teach clients to perform the Valsalva maneuver

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a client diagnosed with Risk for Activity Intolerance is to minimize environmental noise. Environmental noise can increase the energy demand on the client as they try to manage their responses to stimuli. By reducing excess noise, the nurse helps promote rest and conserves the client's energy, which is crucial in managing activity intolerance. Choice A is incorrect because increasing nursing activities may exacerbate the client's intolerance to activity. Choice B is incorrect as assessing for signs of increased muscle tone does not directly address the issue of activity intolerance. Choice D is incorrect as teaching the Valsalva maneuver is not relevant to managing activity intolerance in this scenario.

4. A client is complaining of pain that starts in the shoulder and travels down the length of his arm. This type of pain is referred to as:

• A. Referred pain
• B. Superficial pain
• C. Radiating pain
• D. Precipitating pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Radiating pain is the correct term for pain that originates in one part of the body and extends to other related areas. In this scenario, the pain starting in the shoulder and traveling down the arm describes radiating pain. Referred pain (Choice A) is pain felt at a site different from the actual origin of the pain. Superficial pain (Choice B) is pain that arises from the skin or tissues just beneath it. Precipitating pain (Choice D) refers to pain that is triggered by specific actions or events, not the characteristic described in the question.

5. When performing a physical examination, safety must be considered to protect the examiner and the patient against the spread of infection. Which of these statements describes the most appropriate action the nurse would take when performing a physical examination?

• A. Washing one's hands after removing gloves is necessary, even if the gloves are still intact
• B. Hands are washed before and after every physical patient encounter
• C. Hands are washed before the examination of each body system to prevent the spread of bacteria from one part of the body to another
• D. Gloves are worn throughout the entire examination to demonstrate concern regarding the spread of infectious diseases

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate action for the nurse to take when performing a physical examination is to wash their hands before and after every physical patient encounter. This practice helps prevent the spread of infection. Hands should also be washed after contact with blood, body fluids, secretions, and excretions, and after contact with any equipment contaminated with body fluids. It is crucial to wash hands after removing gloves, even if the gloves appear intact. Choice A is incorrect because washing hands after removing gloves is necessary to ensure thorough hygiene. Choice C is incorrect because hands should be washed before and after every patient encounter, not just before examining each body system. Choice D is incorrect because gloves should be worn when there is potential contact with body fluids, but they do not need to be worn throughout the entire examination.

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