Nursing Elites

1. A patient is seen in the clinic for reports of "fainting episodes that started last week."? How would the nurse proceed with the examination?

• A. Blood pressure readings are taken in both arms and thighs.
• B. The patient is assisted to a lying position, and their blood pressure is taken.
• C. The patient's blood pressure is recorded in lying, sitting, and standing positions.
• D. The patient's blood pressure is recorded in lying and sitting positions; these numbers are then averaged to obtain a mean blood pressure.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient reports fainting episodes, it is crucial to assess for orthostatic hypotension. If the nurse suspects volume depletion, the patient has hypertension, is on antihypertensive medications, or has a history of fainting or syncope, blood pressure readings should be taken in three positions: lying, sitting, and standing. This assessment helps detect orthostatic hypotension, which can provide valuable information about the patient's condition. Taking blood pressure readings in multiple positions allows for a comprehensive evaluation of possible postural changes in blood pressure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not cover the necessary positions to assess for orthostatic hypotension effectively.

2. In addition to standard precautions, the nurse caring for a patient with rubella would plan to implement what type of precautions?

• A. Droplet precautions
• B. Airborne precautions
• C. Contact precautions
• D. Universal precautions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rubella is an illness transmitted by large-particle droplets, so the nurse should implement droplet precautions in addition to standard precautions. Airborne precautions are used for diseases spread through small particles in the air, such as tuberculosis, varicella, and rubeola. Contact precautions are utilized for diseases transmitted by direct contact with the patient or their environment. Universal precautions and body substance isolations are part of the CDC's standard precautions recommendations, but do not specifically address the transmission route of rubella.

3. The hospital has sounded the call for a disaster drill on the evening shift. Which of these clients would the nurse prioritize first on the list to be discharged in order to make a room available for a new admission?

• A. A middle-aged client with a history of being ventilator dependent for over seven (7) years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago.
• B. A young adult with diabetes mellitus Type 2 for over ten (10) years and admitted with antibiotic-induced diarrhea 24 hours ago.
• C. An elderly client with a history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and lupus, and was admitted with Stevens-Johnson syndrome that morning.
• D. An adolescent with a positive HIV test and admitted for acute cellulitis of the lower leg 48 hours ago.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best candidate for discharge during a need for emergency room availability is a stable patient with a chronic condition who is familiar with their care. In this scenario, the middle-aged client in option A, who has been ventilator dependent for over seven years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago, is most suitable for discharge. This client is likely stable and can continue medication therapy at home, making them the most appropriate choice for discharge at this time. Choice B should not be the priority for discharge as the young adult with diabetes mellitus Type 2 admitted with antibiotic-induced diarrhea 24 hours ago may need further monitoring and management of their condition. Choice C, the elderly client with multiple comorbidities and admitted with Stevens-Johnson syndrome on the same day, is not a suitable candidate for immediate discharge as they may require ongoing medical attention and observation. Choice D, the adolescent with a positive HIV test and admitted for acute cellulitis of the lower leg 48 hours ago, should not be discharged first as acute cellulitis may require continued treatment and monitoring, especially in the context of a positive HIV status.

4. When cleansing the genital area during perineal care, the nurse should _____________.

• A. cleanse the penis with a circular motion starting from the base and moving toward the tip.
• B. replace the foreskin after it has been pushed back to cleanse an uncircumcised penis.
• C. cleanse the rectal area first and then clean the patient's genital area.
• D. use the same area on the washcloth for each washing and rinsing stroke for a female resident.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During perineal care, when cleansing the genital area of an uncircumcised male patient, it is crucial to retract the foreskin to clean the area underneath. This helps in the removal of smegma, a substance that can accumulate and lead to bacterial growth and infection if not cleaned properly. The foreskin should then be replaced back to its original position after cleaning to ensure proper hygiene and prevent any potential complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific care required for an uncircumcised penis, which involves retracting and replacing the foreskin.

5. A client is complaining of pain in his right hand after surgery. The IV in his hand has slowed down, and the skin around the site is reddened and cool. The client reports localized pain in the hand and fingers. What is the most likely cause of this client's pain?

• A. The client's IV is infiltrated
• B. The client is experiencing phlebitis from the last drug administered
• C. The client has a blood clot developing in the distal arteries of the wrist
• D. The client's pain is associated with myocardial ischemia and he is having a heart attack

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pain, cool skin, and edema at an IV injection site indicate IV infiltration. The reddened and cool skin around the IV site, along with localized pain and a slowed IV drip rate, are classic signs of infiltration. Infiltration occurs when IV fluids or medications enter the surrounding tissues instead of the vein, leading to potential tissue damage. Phlebitis is inflammation of a vein, not infiltration. A blood clot in the distal arteries of the wrist would not cause these specific symptoms. Myocardial ischemia and heart attack are unrelated to the client's localized hand pain and IV issues.

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