Nursing Elites

1. A physician asks you to place the patient with his dorsal side facing the exam table. Which of the following accurately describes how the patient is positioned?

• A. The patient is lying prone.
• B. The patient is lying supine.
• C. The patient is lying in the recovery position.
• D. The patient is lying on his stomach.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When the physician asks for the patient to be placed with their dorsal side facing the exam table, it means the patient should be lying on their back. This position is known as the supine position, where the patient's back is on the table, facing up towards the ceiling. Choice A, 'The patient is lying prone,' is incorrect as the prone position is when the patient is lying face down. Choice C, 'The patient is lying in the recovery position,' is incorrect as the recovery position is a lateral position typically used in first aid. Choice D, 'The patient is lying on his stomach,' is incorrect as it describes the prone position, not the supine position as required in this scenario.

2. During change-of-shift report, the nurse learns about the following four patients. Which patient requires assessment first?

• A. 40-year-old with chronic pancreatitis who has gnawing abdominal pain
• B. 58-year-old who has compensated cirrhosis and is complaining of anorexia
• C. 55-year-old with cirrhosis and ascites who has an oral temperature of 102�F (38.8�C)
• D. 36-year-old recovering from a laparoscopic cholecystectomy who has severe shoulder pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When prioritizing patient assessments, the nurse should address the patient with cirrhosis and ascites who has an elevated oral temperature of 102�F (38.8�C) first. This presentation suggests a potential infection, which is critical to address promptly in a patient with liver disease. An infection in a patient with cirrhosis can quickly progress to severe complications. The other options, such as chronic pancreatitis with abdominal pain, compensated cirrhosis with anorexia, and post-laparoscopic cholecystectomy with shoulder pain, do not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation requiring urgent assessment compared to a possible infection in a patient with cirrhosis and ascites.

3. A client is having difficulties reading an educational pamphlet. He cannot find his glasses. In order to read the words, he must hold the pamphlet at arm's length, which allows him to read the information. Which vision deficit does this client most likely suffer from?

• A. Cataracts
• B. Glaucoma
• C. Astigmatism
• D. Presbyopia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Presbyopia is a condition that occurs when the lens of the eye loses accommodation and is unable to focus light on objects nearby. As a result, clients are unable to see or read items up close but may have success when holding the same item at arm's length. Many clients with presbyopia must wear bifocals, but long-distance vision remains unaffected. Cataracts involve clouding of the eye's lens, leading to blurry vision. Glaucoma is associated with increased intraocular pressure that damages the optic nerve, causing vision loss. Astigmatism is a refractive error where the cornea or lens has an irregular shape, leading to distorted or blurred vision.

4. A client in a long-term care facility has developed reddened skin over the sacrum, which has cracked and started to blister. The nurse confirms that the client has not been assisted with turning while in bed. Which stage of pressure ulcer is this client exhibiting?

• A. Stage I
• B. Stage II
• C. Stage III
• D. Stage IV

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client is exhibiting a stage II pressure ulcer. A stage II pressure ulcer develops as a partial thickness wound that affects both the epidermis and the dermal layers of skin. This stage can present with red skin, blisters, or cracking, appearing shallow and moist. However, the ulcer does not extend to the underlying tissues at this stage. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect as Stage I ulcers involve non-blanchable redness of intact skin. Choices C (Stage III) and D (Stage IV) are incorrect as they involve more severe tissue damage, extending into deeper layers of the skin and underlying tissues, which is not the case in this scenario.

5. What is the purpose of MSDS sheets?

• A. Contain the ordering information for each piece of equipment in the office.
• B. Are required by OSHA to be accessible to all employees of the office.
• C. Can be used to treat patients who have been injured in equipment accidents.
• D. None of the above.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: MSDS sheets, also known as Materials Safety Data Sheets, are essential documents that provide detailed information about chemicals used in the workplace. They are required by OSHA to be easily accessible to all employees to ensure they have the necessary information to handle chemicals safely. MSDS sheets do not contain ordering information for equipment in the office (Choice A) or serve as a treatment guide for injured patients (Choice C). Therefore, the correct answer is that MSDS sheets are required by OSHA to be accessible to all employees of the office.

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