Nursing Elites

1. A physician asks you to place the patient with his dorsal side facing the exam table. Which of the following accurately describes how the patient is positioned?

• A. The patient is lying prone.
• B. The patient is lying supine.
• C. The patient is lying in the recovery position.
• D. The patient is lying on his stomach.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When the physician asks for the patient to be placed with their dorsal side facing the exam table, it means the patient should be lying on their back. This position is known as the supine position, where the patient's back is on the table, facing up towards the ceiling. Choice A, 'The patient is lying prone,' is incorrect as the prone position is when the patient is lying face down. Choice C, 'The patient is lying in the recovery position,' is incorrect as the recovery position is a lateral position typically used in first aid. Choice D, 'The patient is lying on his stomach,' is incorrect as it describes the prone position, not the supine position as required in this scenario.

2. Who is legally able to make decisions for the patient or resident during a patient care conference when the patient is not mentally able to make decisions on their own?

• A. The patient or their healthcare proxy
• B. Only the patient
• C. Only the healthcare proxy
• D. The doctor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is unable to make decisions due to mental incapacity, the healthcare proxy, designated by the patient in advance, has the legal authority to make decisions on the patient's behalf. In this situation, the patient lacks the capacity to make decisions independently. The healthcare proxy's role is to represent the patient's wishes and best interests. The doctor's role in a patient care conference is to provide medical expertise, offer recommendations, and assist in the decision-making process, but the final decision-making authority lies with the healthcare proxy, not the doctor.

3. A nurse is completing an incident report about a medication error that she made when she accidentally administered too much insulin to a diabetic client. All of the following are components of this documentation EXCEPT:

• A. The reason for administering the wrong dose
• B. The type of drug involved
• C. The amount of insulin that was given
• D. Any adverse effects on the client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When completing an incident report for a medication error, it is essential to include factual information such as the type of drug involved, the amount administered, and any adverse effects on the client. However, stating the reason for administering the wrong dose should be avoided in documentation. The focus should be on reporting what happened rather than assigning blame or admitting fault. This approach helps in ensuring a thorough and accurate account of the medication error without introducing subjective elements that could complicate the investigation or resolution process. Therefore, the correct answer is 'The reason for administering the wrong dose.' Choices A, B, and D are vital components of incident report documentation, providing crucial details that help in understanding the error and its impact on the client.

4. Which technique is correct when assessing the radial pulse of a patient?

• A. Palpate for 1 minute if the rhythm is irregular.
• B. Palpate for 15 seconds and multiply by 4 if the rhythm is regular.
• C. Palpate for 2 full minutes to detect any variation in amplitude.
• D. Palpate for 10 seconds and multiply by 6 if the rhythm is regular and the patient has no history of cardiac abnormalities.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing the radial pulse, if the rhythm is irregular, the pulse should be counted for a full minute to get an accurate representation of the pulse rate. In cases where the rhythm is regular, the recommended technique is to palpate for 15 seconds and then multiply by 4 to calculate the beats per minute. This method is more accurate and efficient for normal or rapid heart rates. Palpating for 30 seconds and multiplying by 2 is not as effective, as any error in counting results in a larger discrepancy in the calculated heart rate. Palpating for 2 full minutes is excessive and not necessary for routine pulse assessment. Palpating for 10 seconds and multiplying by 6 is not a standard technique and may lead to inaccuracies, especially in patients with cardiac abnormalities.

5. When providing endotracheal suctioning, for how long should the nurse suction the endotracheal tube of an intubated client on a ventilator at a time?

• A. Five seconds or less
• B. Ten seconds or less
• C. At least 30 seconds
• D. No longer than 60 seconds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When providing endotracheal suctioning, the nurse should suction for no longer than ten seconds at a time. Suctioning for longer than ten seconds may cause hypoxia or bronchospasm. Extended suctioning may also place the client at risk of injury to the bronchial and tracheal structures. Choices C and D suggest prolonged suctioning durations that can lead to adverse effects on the client. Choice A, suctioning for five seconds or less, may not be adequate to clear secretions effectively, making choice B the most appropriate duration for safe and efficient suctioning in this scenario.

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