Nursing Elites

1. A patient has been told to monitor her LH levels. Which of the following potential conditions might the patient be suffering from?

• A. Menorrhagia
• B. Grave's Disease
• C. Menopause
• D. Infertility

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Luteinizing hormone (LH) is released by the pituitary gland to stimulate ovulation. One of the common reasons for monitoring LH levels is infertility. In women with infertility, LH levels are monitored to time intercourse accurately to maximize the chances of conception. Menorrhagia (choice A) is characterized by heavy menstrual bleeding and is not directly related to LH levels. Grave's Disease (choice B) is an autoimmune disorder affecting the thyroid gland and is not typically monitored by LH levels. Menopause (choice C) is a natural process marking the end of a woman's reproductive years and is not a condition where LH monitoring for infertility is common.

2. When auscultating the blood pressure of a 25-year-old patient, the nurse notices that the phase I Korotkoff sounds begin at 200 mm Hg. At 100 mm Hg, the Korotkoff sounds muffle. At 92 mm Hg, the Korotkoff sounds disappear. How should the nurse record this patient's blood pressure?

• A. 200/92
• B. 200/100
• C. 100/200/92
• D. 200/100/92

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When auscultating blood pressure, it is crucial to note the points at which Korotkoff sounds change. In adults, the last audible sound indicates the diastolic pressure. In this case, the Korotkoff sounds muffle at 100 mm Hg and disappear at 92 mm Hg. Therefore, the blood pressure should be recorded as systolic/diastolic, which is 200/92. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the correct points where the Korotkoff sounds change during blood pressure measurement.

3. You see a sign over Mary Jones' bed when you arrive at 7 am to begin your day shift. The sign says, 'NPO'. Ms. Jones is on a regular diet. The patient asks for milk and some crackers. You _____________.

• A. can give her the milk but not the crackers
• B. can give her both the milk and the crackers
• C. can give her the crackers but not the milk
• D. cannot give her anything to eat or drink

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that you cannot give her anything to eat or drink. 'NPO' is the standard abbreviation for 'nothing by mouth,' indicating that the patient should not consume any food or liquids. It is crucial to adhere to this restriction to prevent any potential harm or complications in the patient's condition. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because 'NPO' clearly specifies that the patient should not have anything to eat or drink, including milk and crackers. Providing these items could lead to adverse effects, so it is essential to follow the 'NPO' directive strictly.

4. Which is the most effective action for controlling the spread of infection?

• A. Thorough hand hygiene
• B. Wearing gloves and masks when providing direct client care
• C. Implementing appropriate isolation precautions
• D. Administering broad-spectrum prophylactic antibiotics

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Thorough hand hygiene is the most effective action for controlling the spread of infection as hands are a common source of transmission. Regular and routine hand hygiene helps prevent the movement of potentially infective materials. Wearing gloves and masks is important when providing direct client care to protect both the caregiver and the patient, but it is not as effective as thorough hand hygiene in preventing overall infection spread. Implementing appropriate isolation precautions is necessary for clients with known communicable diseases, but it is not as universally effective in preventing the spread of various infections. Administering broad-spectrum prophylactic antibiotics is not an appropriate measure for controlling the spread of infection as routine use can lead to superinfection and the development of resistant organisms.

5. A client is about to have a TENS unit attached for pain relief. Which of the following actions is most appropriate in this situation?

• A. Inform the client that he may experience tingling sensations.
• B. Connect the TENS unit before the client goes to bed for the night.
• C. Inform the client that the TENS unit may have pain-reducing effects for 10 to 15 days.
• D. After treatment, inform the client that he may not use a TENS unit again for at least 2 weeks.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When attaching a TENS unit for pain relief, it is essential to inform the client that he may experience tingling sensations. This is a common sensation experienced when using a TENS unit, but it should not cause muscle twitching. The therapeutic effects of a TENS unit usually last between 3 to 5 days. Choice B is incorrect because there is no specific recommendation to connect the TENS unit before bedtime. Choice C is incorrect as stating that the TENS unit may have pain-reducing effects for 10 to 15 days is inaccurate, as the effects typically last 3 to 5 days. Choice D is incorrect because there is no guideline suggesting that the client cannot use a TENS unit again for at least 2 weeks after treatment.

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