the primary reason why the nurse should avoid glued on artificial nails is because they

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Predictor Exam

1. Why should direct care providers avoid glued-on artificial nails?

A. Interfere with dexterity of the fingers.
B. Could fall off in a patient's bed.
C. Harbor microorganisms.
D. Can scratch a patient.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Direct care providers, including nurses, should avoid glued-on artificial nails because studies have shown that artificial nails, especially when cracked, broken, or split, create crevices where microorganisms can thrive and multiply. This can lead to an increased risk of transmitting infections to patients. Therefore, the primary reason for avoiding glued-on artificial nails is their potential to harbor harmful microorganisms, making option C the correct choice. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because while they may present some issues, the primary concern is the risk of microbial contamination associated with artificial nails.

2. A healthcare professional realizes after a patient has left the office that they forgot to document the patient's complaint of a sore throat. Which of the following choices would BEST correct the error?

A. Pull out that page of the chart and rewrite it with the correct information.
B. Put one line through the original Chief Complaint, write 'ERROR,' your initials, and today's date. Make the correction by rewriting the Chief Complaint with the correct information.
C. Go to the next available line of the SOAP notes. Write the current date, then write 'Late Entry.' Place the date and time when the patient stated they had a sore throat. Sign and date the entry.
D. All of the above are incorrect.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When adding information to a patient's chart after the encounter, using the term 'Late Entry' is essential. This clearly indicates that the information was added after the fact and helps to maintain the accuracy and integrity of the medical record. Option A is incorrect because removing a page from the chart and rewriting it can lead to inaccuracies and is not a recommended practice for correcting errors. Option B suggests marking the original Chief Complaint as an error, which may not be clear to future readers of the chart and could lead to confusion. Option D is incorrect as it dismisses the correct approach outlined in Option C, which is the best way to handle the situation of missed documentation during a patient encounter.

3. During an initial assessment interview, which statement made by a patient should serve as the priority focus for the plan of care?

A. "I can always trust my family."?
B. "It seems like I always have bad luck."?
C. "You never know who will turn against you."?
D. "I hear evil voices that tell me to do bad things."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The statement about hearing evil voices indicates that the patient is experiencing auditory hallucinations, which is a significant symptom that requires immediate attention and intervention. This symptom can be associated with serious mental health conditions like psychosis. Choices A, B, and C are more general statements that do not provide specific information about the patient's mental health status or symptoms, making them less urgent and not as critical for the plan of care compared to the presence of auditory hallucinations.

4. When performing CPR, at what rate should chest compressions be applied?

A. 100 per minute
B. 60 per minute
C. As quickly as possible
D. 200 per minute

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During CPR, chest compressions should be applied at a rate of 100 compressions per minute in order to effectively circulate blood and oxygen to vital organs. Option A, '100 per minute,' is the correct answer as it aligns with the recommended compression rate in CPR guidelines. Option B, '60 per minute,' is incorrect as it is too slow and may not provide adequate circulation. Option C, 'As quickly as possible,' is vague and does not specify the recommended compression rate. Option D, '200 per minute,' is incorrect as it exceeds the recommended rate and may not be as effective in maintaining perfusion.

5. A student is late for an appointment and has rushed across campus to the health clinic. How should the nurse proceed?

A. Allow 5 minutes for the student to relax and rest before checking their vital signs.
B. Check the blood pressure in both arms, expecting a difference in the readings due to the recent exercise.
C. Immediately monitor the student's vital signs upon arrival at the clinic and then 5 minutes later, recording any differences.
D. Check the student's blood pressure in the supine position to provide a more accurate reading and allow the student to relax at the same time.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To ensure an accurate blood pressure reading, it is important for the student to be in a relaxed state. Allowing at least a 5-minute rest period helps reduce anxiety and provides a valid blood pressure measurement. Checking the blood pressure in both arms is unnecessary unless there is a specific reason to suspect an issue, and recent exercise should not significantly impact the readings. Monitoring vital signs immediately upon arrival may not yield accurate results due to the rush and anxiety of the student. Checking blood pressure in the supine position is not necessary in this scenario and does not provide a more accurate reading.