the primary reason why the nurse should avoid glued on artificial nails is because they
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Predictor Exam

1. Why should direct care providers avoid glued-on artificial nails?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Direct care providers, including nurses, should avoid glued-on artificial nails because studies have shown that artificial nails, especially when cracked, broken, or split, create crevices where microorganisms can thrive and multiply. This can lead to an increased risk of transmitting infections to patients. Therefore, the primary reason for avoiding glued-on artificial nails is their potential to harbor harmful microorganisms, making option C the correct choice. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because while they may present some issues, the primary concern is the risk of microbial contamination associated with artificial nails.

2. The nurse is caring for a patient who has a right-sided chest tube after a right lower lobectomy. Which nursing action can the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to document the amount of drainage every eight hours. UAP education typically includes tasks related to documentation of intake and output. Obtaining samples of drainage for culture and assessing patient pain level are nursing responsibilities that require licensed nursing personnel's education and scope of practice. Checking the water-seal chamber for the correct fluid level also falls under the nursing role, as it involves monitoring and maintaining the chest tube system, which requires nursing knowledge and training.

3. A patient is in the office for a cyst removal and is very anxious about the procedure. Which of the following descriptions of his respirations would be expected?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tachypnea is defined as a rapid, quick, and shallow respiration rate. When a patient is anxious, they may hyperventilate, leading to tachypnea. Bradypnea (Choice A) is slow breathing, which is not expected in an anxious patient. Orthopnea (Choice B) is difficulty breathing while lying down and is not directly related to anxiety. Dyspnea (Choice D) is shortness of breath, which may not be the primary respiratory pattern seen in an anxious patient undergoing a procedure. Therefore, the correct choice is tachypnea as it aligns with the expected respiratory response to anxiety.

4. Mrs. D is a pregnant client who is 33 weeks' gestation and is admitted for bright red vaginal bleeding. Her physician suspects placenta previa. All of the following nursing interventions are appropriate for this client except:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A client with placenta previa has part of the placenta covering some or all of the cervical opening. Performing a vaginal exam for placenta previa may cause significant bleeding and should be avoided unless directed by a physician, and preparations are made for emergency delivery. **Choice A** is correct as complete bed rest is essential to decrease the risk of further bleeding. **Choice B** is appropriate as assessing uterine tone helps in determining the condition of the uterus and can provide important information for the healthcare team. **Choice D** is also a necessary intervention as monitoring and recording blood loss is crucial in assessing the client's condition and response to treatment.

5. Your patient ate an 8-ounce cup of Italian ice. How much will you record on the patient's Intake and Output form in terms of this patient's fluid intake?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 240 cc. Italian ice is considered a fluid, so you would record the intake of 240 cc. Choice B (120 cc) and Choice C (8 cc) are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct amount of fluid intake from an 8-ounce cup of Italian ice. Choice D (0 cc) is incorrect because Italian ice does count as a fluid intake and should be recorded as such.

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