Nursing Elites

1. Who is legally able to make decisions for the patient or resident during a patient care conference when the patient is not mentally able to make decisions on their own?

• A. The patient or their healthcare proxy
• B. Only the patient
• C. Only the healthcare proxy
• D. The doctor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is unable to make decisions due to mental incapacity, the healthcare proxy, designated by the patient in advance, has the legal authority to make decisions on the patient's behalf. In this situation, the patient lacks the capacity to make decisions independently. The healthcare proxy's role is to represent the patient's wishes and best interests. The doctor's role in a patient care conference is to provide medical expertise, offer recommendations, and assist in the decision-making process, but the final decision-making authority lies with the healthcare proxy, not the doctor.

2. The nurse receives change-of-shift report on the following four patients. Which patient should the nurse assess first?

• A. A 23-year-old patient with cystic fibrosis who has pulmonary function testing scheduled
• B. A 46-year-old patient on bed rest who is complaining of sudden onset of shortness of breath
• C. A 77-year-old patient with tuberculosis (TB) who has four antitubercular medications due in 15 minutes
• D. A 35-year-old patient who was admitted the previous day with pneumonia and has a temperature of 100.2 F (37.8 C)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is the 46-year-old patient on bed rest who is complaining of sudden onset of shortness of breath. Patients on bed rest who are immobile are at high risk for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Sudden onset of shortness of breath in a patient with a DVT suggests a pulmonary embolism, which requires immediate assessment and action such as oxygen administration to maintain adequate oxygenation. The other patients should also be assessed as soon as possible, but they do not present with an immediate life-threatening condition that requires urgent intervention like the patient experiencing sudden shortness of breath.

3. A patient is in the office for a cyst removal and is very anxious about the procedure. Which of the following descriptions of his respirations would be expected?

• A. Bradypnea
• B. Orthopnea
• C. Tachypnea
• D. Dyspnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tachypnea is defined as a rapid, quick, and shallow respiration rate. When a patient is anxious, they may hyperventilate, leading to tachypnea. Bradypnea (Choice A) is slow breathing, which is not expected in an anxious patient. Orthopnea (Choice B) is difficulty breathing while lying down and is not directly related to anxiety. Dyspnea (Choice D) is shortness of breath, which may not be the primary respiratory pattern seen in an anxious patient undergoing a procedure. Therefore, the correct choice is tachypnea as it aligns with the expected respiratory response to anxiety.

4. After a symptom is recognized, the first effort at treatment is often self-treatment. Which of the following statements is true about self-treatment?

• A. "Not recognized as valuable by most health care providers."?
• B. "Usually ineffective and may delay more effective treatment."?
• C. "Always less expensive than biomedical alternatives."?
• D. "Influenced by the accessibility of over-the-counter medicines."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After a symptom is identified, the first effort at treatment is often self-treatment. The availability of over-the-counter medications, the relatively high literacy level of Americans, and the influence of the internet and mass media in communicating health-related information to the general population have contributed to the high percentage of cases of self-treatment. Health care providers are recognizing the value of a wide variety of alternative, complementary, and traditional interventions. Many self-treatments, such as over-the-counter medications, are effective. Self-treatment is not always less expensive. Choice A is incorrect as health care providers are recognizing the value of self-treatment. Choice B is incorrect because self-treatment can be effective in many cases. Choice C is incorrect as self-treatment is not always less expensive; it depends on the specific treatment being used.

5. Which of the following is the correct sequence for removing personal protective equipment?

• A. Remove gown, gloves, shoe covers, mask
• B. Remove mask, gloves, gown, shoe covers
• C. Remove gloves, gown, mask, shoe covers
• D. Remove shoe covers, mask, gloves, gown

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct sequence for removing personal protective equipment is crucial to prevent contamination. When exiting a surgical or aseptic situation, the proper sequence is to first remove gloves, followed by the gown, mask, and finally shoe covers. This order ensures that potentially contaminated items are removed first, minimizing the risk of exposure. Choice A, 'Remove gown, gloves, shoe covers, mask,' is incorrect as gloves should be removed before the gown. Choice B, 'Remove mask, gloves, gown, shoe covers,' is incorrect as gloves should be removed first. Choice D, 'Remove shoe covers, mask, gloves, gown,' is incorrect as gloves should be the first item removed to prevent contamination.

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