HESI RN
HESI Nutrition Exam
1. When reassigned to the emergency department, a nurse should understand that gastric lavage is a priority in which situation?
- A. An infant who has been identified to have botulism
- B. A toddler who ate a number of ibuprofen tablets
- C. A preschooler who swallowed powdered plant food
- D. A school-aged child who took a handful of vitamins
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because gastric lavage is a priority for infants with botulism to remove toxins from the stomach. Botulism is a serious condition caused by a toxin produced by Clostridium botulinum bacteria. Gastric lavage helps in removing the toxin from the stomach. Choice B is incorrect because gastric lavage is not typically indicated for ibuprofen ingestion. Choice C is incorrect because gastric lavage is not the first-line treatment for ingesting powdered plant food. Choice D is incorrect because gastric lavage is not routinely performed for vitamin ingestion.
2. A nurse is reinforcing dietary teaching with a client who has iron deficiency anemia. The nurse should explain that which of the following food sources contains iron that is most easily absorbed by the body?
- A. Spinach
- B. Dried apricots
- C. Chicken
- D. Lentils
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Chicken.' Heme iron from animal sources, such as chicken, is more easily absorbed by the body compared to non-heme iron from plant sources like spinach, dried apricots, and lentils. While plant-based iron sources are beneficial, they are not as readily absorbed by the body as heme iron from animal products.
3. A client has returned from a cardiac catheterization. Which one of the following assessments would indicate the client is experiencing a complication from the procedure?
- A. Increased blood pressure
- B. Increased heart rate
- C. Loss of pulse in the extremity
- D. Decreased urine output
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Loss of pulse in the extremity can indicate an arterial blockage, requiring immediate medical evaluation. Increased blood pressure and heart rate are common physiological responses after cardiac catheterization and may not necessarily indicate a complication. Decreased urine output is more indicative of renal function and may not be directly related to complications from the procedure.
4. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is admitted with chest pain. Which of these findings would be most concerning to the nurse?
- A. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg
- B. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute
- C. Heart rate of 72 beats per minute
- D. Temperature of 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute may indicate respiratory distress in a client with chest pain. In a client with a history of coronary artery disease presenting with chest pain, signs of respiratory distress can be an alarming finding. Blood pressure within the normal range (130/80 mm Hg), heart rate of 72 beats per minute, and a temperature of 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit are generally considered within normal limits and may not be as concerning in this context.
5. A client is diagnosed with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus pneumonia. What type of isolation is most appropriate for this client?
- A. Reverse
- B. Airborne
- C. Standard precautions
- D. Contact
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Contact.' Contact precautions are necessary for clients with MRSA pneumonia to prevent the spread of the resistant bacteria. MRSA is primarily spread by direct contact, so using contact precautions, such as wearing gloves and gowns, is essential. Choice A, 'Reverse,' is not a type of isolation precaution. Choice B, 'Airborne,' is not the appropriate isolation for MRSA pneumonia, as MRSA is not transmitted through the airborne route. Choice C, 'Standard precautions,' are important for all clients, but for MRSA pneumonia specifically, contact precautions are more targeted and necessary.
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