a nurse is working with mr l a client who is being seen for disrupted sleep patterns the nurse encourages mr l to verbalize his feelings about sleep a
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NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Exam Prep

1. A client is being seen for disrupted sleep patterns. The nurse encourages the client to verbalize feelings about sleep and inability to maintain adequate sleep habits. What is the rationale for this action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients experiencing disrupted sleep patterns may have underlying anxiety or fear contributing to their poor sleep habits. Encouraging clients to verbalize their feelings about sleep allows them to address any negative emotions that may be impacting their ability to sleep well. By working through these issues, clients may experience increased peace and relaxation, which can help promote better sleep. Option A is incorrect because assuming a mental illness without evidence can lead to mismanagement of the client's care. Option C is incorrect as it does not address the underlying emotional factors affecting the client's sleep patterns. Option D is incorrect as there is a specific rationale for encouraging the client to verbalize their feelings about sleep.

2. What message is a patient sending when displaying the following body language: Slumped shoulders, grimace, and stiff joints?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Body language is a powerful form of non-verbal communication that can convey various emotions. In this scenario, the patient's slumped shoulders, grimace, and stiff joints suggest a negative emotional state. Anger is the correct answer because grimacing and tense posture are commonly associated with anger. Choice B, 'Aloofness,' is incorrect as aloofness is more related to disinterest or detachment, which is not indicated by the described body language. Choice C, 'Empathy,' is incorrect as the body language described does not align with expressing understanding or compassion towards others. Choice D, 'Depression,' is incorrect as while depression can also manifest through body language, the specific cues given in the scenario lean more towards anger than depression.

3. A patient's urine tests positive for glucose. The doctor asks you to confirm this finding. Which of the following would BEST confirm this finding?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To confirm glucosuria, the most appropriate method is to run a Clinitest. Clinitest tablets are specifically designed to detect glucose in urine samples. This test is particularly useful when the urine is discolored, making it challenging to accurately assess the color change.\n Choice A, using a hand-held glucometer, is not the standard method for confirming glucose in urine; these devices are primarily used for blood glucose monitoring.\n Choice B, having another Medical Assistant perform a repeat dipstick test, may not provide a more definitive confirmation as dipstick tests can sometimes yield false positives or be less accurate compared to other methods like the Clinitest.\n Choice D, running an Acetest, is used to detect ketones in the urine, not glucose. Ketones are typically associated with conditions like diabetic ketoacidosis, which is different from glucosuria.

4. A 30-year-old woman has recently moved to the United States with her husband. They are living with the woman's sister until they can get a home of their own. When company arrives to visit the woman's sister, the woman feels suddenly shy and retreats to the back bedroom to hide until the company leaves. She explains that her reaction to guests is simply because she does not know how to speak "perfect English."? What is this woman likely experiencing?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The woman in the scenario is likely experiencing culture shock. Culture shock is a term used to describe the state of disorientation or inability to respond to the behavior of a different cultural group due to sudden strangeness, unfamiliarity, and incompatibility with the individual's perceptions and expectations. In this case, the woman's feelings of shyness and retreating due to not feeling confident in speaking 'perfect English' align with symptoms of culture shock. The other choices are incorrect: Cultural taboos refer to behaviors or actions that are prohibited within a particular culture; cultural unfamiliarity suggests a lack of knowledge about a specific culture, which is not the case here; and culture disorientation is not a commonly used term in cultural psychology, making it an incorrect option.

5. A client in a long-term care facility has developed reddened skin over the sacrum, which has cracked and started to blister. The nurse confirms that the client has not been assisted with turning while in bed. Which stage of pressure ulcer is this client exhibiting?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client is exhibiting a stage II pressure ulcer. A stage II pressure ulcer develops as a partial thickness wound that affects both the epidermis and the dermal layers of skin. This stage can present with red skin, blisters, or cracking, appearing shallow and moist. However, the ulcer does not extend to the underlying tissues at this stage. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect as Stage I ulcers involve non-blanchable redness of intact skin. Choices C (Stage III) and D (Stage IV) are incorrect as they involve more severe tissue damage, extending into deeper layers of the skin and underlying tissues, which is not the case in this scenario.

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