Nursing Elites

1. When cleansing the genital area during perineal care, the nurse should _____________.

• A. cleanse the penis with a circular motion starting from the base and moving toward the tip.
• B. replace the foreskin after it has been pushed back to cleanse an uncircumcised penis.
• C. cleanse the rectal area first and then clean the patient's genital area.
• D. use the same area on the washcloth for each washing and rinsing stroke for a female resident.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During perineal care, when cleansing the genital area of an uncircumcised male patient, it is crucial to retract the foreskin to clean the area underneath. This helps in the removal of smegma, a substance that can accumulate and lead to bacterial growth and infection if not cleaned properly. The foreskin should then be replaced back to its original position after cleaning to ensure proper hygiene and prevent any potential complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific care required for an uncircumcised penis, which involves retracting and replacing the foreskin.

2. When caring for a single client during one shift, it is appropriate for the nurse to reuse only which of the following personal protective equipment?

• A. Goggles
• B. Gown
• C. Surgical mask
• D. Clean gloves

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Goggles may be reused unless they are overly contaminated by material that has splashed in the nurse's face and cannot be effectively rinsed off. Gowns are at high risk for contamination and should be used only once and then discarded or washed. Surgical masks and gloves should never be washed or reused. Goggles provide eye protection from splashes and should be cleaned and disinfected after each use to ensure proper protection.

3. Who is legally able to make decisions for the patient or resident during a patient care conference when the patient is not mentally able to make decisions on their own?

• A. The patient or their healthcare proxy
• B. Only the patient
• C. Only the healthcare proxy
• D. The doctor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is unable to make decisions due to mental incapacity, the healthcare proxy, designated by the patient in advance, has the legal authority to make decisions on the patient's behalf. In this situation, the patient lacks the capacity to make decisions independently. The healthcare proxy's role is to represent the patient's wishes and best interests. The doctor's role in a patient care conference is to provide medical expertise, offer recommendations, and assist in the decision-making process, but the final decision-making authority lies with the healthcare proxy, not the doctor.

4. A client is about to have a TENS unit attached for pain relief. Which of the following actions is most appropriate in this situation?

• A. Inform the client that he may experience tingling sensations.
• B. Connect the TENS unit before the client goes to bed for the night.
• C. Inform the client that the TENS unit may have pain-reducing effects for 10 to 15 days.
• D. After treatment, inform the client that he may not use a TENS unit again for at least 2 weeks.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When attaching a TENS unit for pain relief, it is essential to inform the client that he may experience tingling sensations. This is a common sensation experienced when using a TENS unit, but it should not cause muscle twitching. The therapeutic effects of a TENS unit usually last between 3 to 5 days. Choice B is incorrect because there is no specific recommendation to connect the TENS unit before bedtime. Choice C is incorrect as stating that the TENS unit may have pain-reducing effects for 10 to 15 days is inaccurate, as the effects typically last 3 to 5 days. Choice D is incorrect because there is no guideline suggesting that the client cannot use a TENS unit again for at least 2 weeks after treatment.

5. After change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first?

• A. 72-year-old with cor pulmonale who has 4+ bilateral edema in his legs and feet
• B. 28-year-old with a history of a lung transplant and a temperature of 101 F (38.3 C)
• C. 40-year-old with a pleural effusion who is complaining of severe stabbing chest pain
• D. 64-year-old with lung cancer and tracheal deviation after subclavian catheter insertion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The patient with lung cancer and tracheal deviation after a subclavian catheter insertion should be assessed first. Tracheal deviation can indicate tension pneumothorax, a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention to prevent inadequate cardiac output or hypoxemia. While the other patients also need assessment, the potential for tension pneumothorax in the patient with tracheal deviation necessitates urgent attention to prevent complications.

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