Nursing Elites

1. When cleansing the genital area during perineal care, the nurse should _____________.

• A. cleanse the penis with a circular motion starting from the base and moving toward the tip.
• B. replace the foreskin after it has been pushed back to cleanse an uncircumcised penis.
• C. cleanse the rectal area first and then clean the patient's genital area.
• D. use the same area on the washcloth for each washing and rinsing stroke for a female resident.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During perineal care, when cleansing the genital area of an uncircumcised male patient, it is crucial to retract the foreskin to clean the area underneath. This helps in the removal of smegma, a substance that can accumulate and lead to bacterial growth and infection if not cleaned properly. The foreskin should then be replaced back to its original position after cleaning to ensure proper hygiene and prevent any potential complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific care required for an uncircumcised penis, which involves retracting and replacing the foreskin.

2. Why should a palpated pressure be performed before auscultating blood pressure?

• A. To more clearly hear the Korotkoff sounds.
• B. To detect the presence of an auscultatory gap.
• C. To avoid missing a falsely elevated blood pressure.
• D. To more readily identify phase IV of the Korotkoff sounds.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Performing a palpated pressure before auscultating blood pressure helps in detecting the presence of an auscultatory gap. An auscultatory gap is a period during blood pressure measurement when Korotkoff sounds temporarily disappear before reappearing. Inflation of the cuff 20 to 30 mm Hg beyond the point where a palpated pulse disappears helps in identifying this gap. This technique ensures accurate blood pressure measurement by preventing the underestimation of blood pressure values. The other options are incorrect because palpating the pressure is not primarily done to hear Korotkoff sounds more clearly, avoid missing falsely elevated blood pressure, or readily identify a specific phase of Korotkoff sounds.

3. Which of the following constitutes the five rights of medication administration?

• A. Right client, right nurse, right time, right dose, right route
• B. Right client, right time, right dose, right route, right order
• C. Right client, right drug, right dose, right time, right route
• D. Right physician, right nurse, right client, right drug, right dose

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The five rights of medication administration are essential to ensure safe and effective drug delivery to clients. The correct answer includes ensuring the right client receives the right drug at the right dose, via the right route, and at the right time. These elements are crucial to prevent medication errors and ensure optimal therapeutic outcomes. Choice A is incorrect as it includes 'right nurse' which is not part of the five rights of medication administration. Choice B is incorrect as it includes 'right order' which is not part of the five rights. Choice C is incorrect as it includes 'right drug' and 'right route', but it lacks 'right client' and 'right time'. Choice D is incorrect as it includes 'right physician' which is not part of the five rights.

4. Which of these is a correctly stated outcome goal written by the nurse?

• A. The client will walk 2 miles daily by March 19
• B. The client will understand how to give insulin by discharge
• C. The client will regain their former state of health by April 1
• D. The client achieve desired mobility by May 7

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Outcome goals should be SMART, i.e., Specific, Measurable, Appropriate, Realistic, and Timely. Option A is the only outcome that has a specific behavior (walks daily), with measurable performance criteria (2 miles), and a time estimate for goal attainment (by March 19). Option B lacks specificity in terms of what 'understand how to give insulin' entails, and the timeline is vague ('by discharge'). Option C is not measurable or specific about what 'regain their former state of health' means. Option D does not provide a specific behavior or measurable criteria for 'desired mobility,' and the timeline is the only element that is time-bound.

5. Which of the following is the correct sequence for removing personal protective equipment?

• A. Remove gown, gloves, shoe covers, mask
• B. Remove mask, gloves, gown, shoe covers
• C. Remove gloves, gown, mask, shoe covers
• D. Remove shoe covers, mask, gloves, gown

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct sequence for removing personal protective equipment is crucial to prevent contamination. When exiting a surgical or aseptic situation, the proper sequence is to first remove gloves, followed by the gown, mask, and finally shoe covers. This order ensures that potentially contaminated items are removed first, minimizing the risk of exposure. Choice A, 'Remove gown, gloves, shoe covers, mask,' is incorrect as gloves should be removed before the gown. Choice B, 'Remove mask, gloves, gown, shoe covers,' is incorrect as gloves should be removed first. Choice D, 'Remove shoe covers, mask, gloves, gown,' is incorrect as gloves should be the first item removed to prevent contamination.

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