Nursing Elites

1. A client is preparing to administer an enema to a 64-year-old client. Which of the following actions of the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Assist the client to lie in the semi-Fowler position
• B. Apply lubricating jelly to the tip of the catheter before insertion
• C. Instill a total of 30cc of fluid into the client's rectum
• D. Ask the client to hold the solution in for 30 seconds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering an enema to a client, the nurse should place the client in the Sims' position for easy access. The correct action is to apply lubricating jelly to the tip of the catheter before insertion to facilitate a smoother procedure. It is essential to instill a maximum of 750 to 1000 cc of fluid for an adult client, not just 30cc. Following administration, the nurse should ask the client to hold the solution for at least 5 minutes to allow for the desired effect of the enema. Therefore, choice B is the most appropriate action, as choices A, C, and D are incorrect due to inaccuracies in positioning, enema volume, and retention time.

2. Which action is appropriate for the nurse to delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?

• A. Listen to a patient's lung sounds for wheezes or rhonchi.
• B. Label specimens obtained during percutaneous lung biopsy.
• C. Instruct a patient about how to use home spirometry testing.
• D. Measure induration at the site of a patient's intradermal skin test.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Labeling specimens obtained during a percutaneous lung biopsy is a task that can be appropriately delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) as it does not require nursing judgment. UAP can perform this task safely under the supervision of a nurse. Listening to a patient's lung sounds for wheezes or rhonchi, instructing a patient about how to use home spirometry testing, and measuring induration at the site of a patient's intradermal skin test all require nursing judgment and interpretation of findings. These tasks should be performed by licensed nursing personnel to ensure accurate assessment and appropriate intervention.

3. The client is being discharged to a long-term care (LTC) facility. The nurse is preparing a progress note to communicate to the LTC staff the client's outcome goals that were met and those that were not. To do this effectively, the nurse should:

• A. Formulate post-discharge nursing diagnoses
• B. Draw conclusion about resolution of current client problems
• C. Assess the client for baseline data to be used at the LTC facility
• D. Plan the care that is needed in the LTC facility

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To effectively communicate the client's outcome goals that were met and those that were not to the LTC staff, the nurse should draw conclusions about the resolution of the current client problems. Terminal evaluation is performed to determine the client's condition at discharge, focusing on which goals were achieved and which were not. Formulating post-discharge nursing diagnoses (option A) is not the most appropriate action in this scenario as it focuses on identifying potential problems after discharge rather than evaluating achieved goals. Assessing the client for baseline data (option C) is not necessary at this point as the focus is on evaluating outcomes rather than collecting baseline data. Planning the care needed in the LTC facility (option D) is premature as this should be done on admission to the LTC facility and not during the discharge process.

4. When preparing to perform a physical examination on an infant, what should the nurse do?

• A. Have the parent remove all clothing except the diaper.
• B. Instruct the parent not to feed the infant immediately before the examination.
• C. Allow the infant to suck on a pacifier during abdominal auscultation.
• D. Ensure the parent is present during the examination.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For performing a physical examination on an infant, it is important to have the parent remove all clothing except the diaper to allow for a thorough examination while ensuring the infant remains comfortable. It is recommended not to feed the infant immediately before the examination but rather 1 to 2 hours after feeding when the baby is neither too drowsy nor too hungry. While a pacifier may be used during invasive assessments or if the infant is crying, it is not typically necessary during abdominal auscultation. Having the parent present during the examination is important for the infant's security and for the parent to understand the process; however, the clothing should still be removed except for the diaper to facilitate a comprehensive assessment.

5. A patient is in the office for a cyst removal and is very anxious about the procedure. Which of the following descriptions of his respirations would be expected?

• A. Bradypnea
• B. Orthopnea
• C. Tachypnea
• D. Dyspnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tachypnea is defined as a rapid, quick, and shallow respiration rate. When a patient is anxious, they may hyperventilate, leading to tachypnea. Bradypnea (Choice A) is slow breathing, which is not expected in an anxious patient. Orthopnea (Choice B) is difficulty breathing while lying down and is not directly related to anxiety. Dyspnea (Choice D) is shortness of breath, which may not be the primary respiratory pattern seen in an anxious patient undergoing a procedure. Therefore, the correct choice is tachypnea as it aligns with the expected respiratory response to anxiety.

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