the atlas and the axis
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Actual Exam Test Bank

1. The Atlas and the Axis are:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The Atlas and the Axis are the first two cervical vertebrae, designated as C1 and C2. The Atlas (C1) supports the skull, while the Axis (C2) allows for rotation of the skull. Therefore, all the statements in choices A, B, and C are correct, making 'All of the above' the correct answer. Choice A is correct as the Atlas and Axis are indeed found in the vertebrae. Choice B is correct as they are the first two cervical vertebrae. Choice C is correct as these bones form the superior aspect of the spine.

2. A client has just started a transfusion of packed red blood cells that a physician ordered. Which of the following signs may indicate a transfusion reaction?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is when the client suddenly complains of back pain and has chills. Signs of a transfusion reaction include back pain, chills, dizziness, increased temperature, and blood in the urine. These signs indicate a possible adverse reaction to the blood transfusion. Dependent edema in the extremities is not typically associated with a transfusion reaction. A seizure is not a common sign of a transfusion reaction unless it is due to severe complications. A decrease in heart rate to 60 bpm is not a typical sign of a transfusion reaction, but rather bradycardia may indicate other underlying conditions or medications.

3. Which complication of cardiac catheterization should the nurse monitor for in the initial 24 hours after the procedure?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Thrombus formation is a critical complication of cardiac catheterization that the nurse should monitor for in the initial 24 hours after the procedure. A thrombus can form in the blood vessels, obstructing blood flow and potentially leading to serious consequences such as embolism or organ ischemia. While angina at rest, dizziness, and falling blood pressure are potential complications following cardiac catheterization, they are not typically associated with the immediate post-procedural period. Monitoring for thrombus formation is essential to ensure early detection and intervention, which can prevent serious complications.

4. Which of the following tests would MOST LIKELY be performed on a patient who is being monitored for coagulation therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: PT/INR. Prothrombin times (PT/INR) are commonly used to monitor patients on Coumadin (warfarin) therapy, an anticoagulant that slows the blood's ability to clot. Monitoring PT/INR levels helps ensure the patient is receiving the appropriate dosage of Coumadin. Choice B, CBC (Complete Blood Count), is a general test that provides information on red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets but is not specific to monitoring coagulation therapy. Choice C, PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time), is another coagulation test but is not as commonly used for monitoring Coumadin therapy. Choice D, WBC (White Blood Cell count), is unrelated to monitoring coagulation therapy and is used to assess immune system function.

5. A patient is in the office for a cyst removal and is very anxious about the procedure. Which of the following descriptions of his respirations would be expected?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tachypnea is defined as a rapid, quick, and shallow respiration rate. When a patient is anxious, they may hyperventilate, leading to tachypnea. Bradypnea (Choice A) is slow breathing, which is not expected in an anxious patient. Orthopnea (Choice B) is difficulty breathing while lying down and is not directly related to anxiety. Dyspnea (Choice D) is shortness of breath, which may not be the primary respiratory pattern seen in an anxious patient undergoing a procedure. Therefore, the correct choice is tachypnea as it aligns with the expected respiratory response to anxiety.

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