HESI RN
HESI Community Health
1. During a health assessment for a family with a history of cardiovascular disease, which family member should be prioritized for further evaluation and intervention?
- A. a 45-year-old father who smokes and has high cholesterol
- B. a 17-year-old daughter who is overweight and inactive
- C. a 50-year-old mother with a history of hypertension
- D. a 12-year-old son who has a normal weight and is active
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The 45-year-old father who smokes and has high cholesterol should be prioritized for further evaluation and intervention. He has multiple risk factors for cardiovascular disease, including smoking and high cholesterol, which significantly increase his risk. Addressing these modifiable risk factors is crucial in preventing cardiovascular events. The daughter (Choice B) and mother (Choice C) also have risk factors, but the father's combination of smoking and high cholesterol places him at higher immediate risk, demanding priority intervention. The 12-year-old son (Choice D) with a normal weight and an active lifestyle has a lower risk profile and does not require immediate intervention compared to the father.
2. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a new arteriovenous fistula in the left arm for hemodialysis. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. A thrill is palpable on the fistula.
- B. The client's arm is warm and red.
- C. The fistula has a bruit on auscultation.
- D. There is no bruit on auscultation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Warmth and redness in the client's arm suggest infection or thrombosis of the arteriovenous fistula, which requires immediate intervention to prevent complications. A thrill (A) is a normal finding in a functional arteriovenous fistula, indicating good blood flow. A bruit (C) is also a normal finding on auscultation of a functioning arteriovenous fistula, indicating proper blood flow. The absence of a bruit (D) may indicate a non-functioning fistula, which would need further evaluation but does not require immediate intervention as warmth and redness do.
3. A female client makes routine visits to a neighborhood community health center. The nurse notes that this client often presents with facial bruising, particularly around the eyes. The nurse discusses prevention of domestic violence with the client even though the client does not admit to it. What level of prevention has the nurse applied in this situation?
- A. primary prevention
- B. secondary prevention
- C. tertiary prevention
- D. health promotion
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse has applied primary prevention in this situation. Primary prevention involves efforts to prevent the occurrence of domestic violence before it starts, even if the client does not admit to the abuse. Secondary prevention focuses on early detection and intervention to reduce the harm caused by violence that is already occurring. Tertiary prevention involves actions taken to rehabilitate and support individuals who have experienced domestic violence. Health promotion encompasses a broader approach aimed at improving overall health and well-being, which may include education on domestic violence prevention but is not specific to this scenario.
4. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is admitted with unilateral leg swelling. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Elevate the affected leg on a pillow.
- B. Apply a warm compress to the affected leg.
- C. Perform passive range-of-motion exercises on the affected leg.
- D. Encourage the client to ambulate frequently.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and unilateral leg swelling is to elevate the affected leg on a pillow. Elevating the affected leg helps reduce swelling and pain by promoting venous return and preventing stasis of blood flow. Applying a warm compress (Choice B) may increase inflammation and worsen the condition. Performing passive range-of-motion exercises (Choice C) and encouraging ambulation (Choice D) can dislodge a clot and lead to potential embolism, making these choices contraindicated in a client with DVT.
5. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL.
- B. Serum bicarbonate of 20 mEq/L.
- C. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg.
- D. Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours indicates oliguria, which is a concerning sign of decreased renal perfusion and potential renal failure. This finding requires immediate intervention to prevent further deterioration of kidney function.\n\nChoice A (Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL) is elevated but not the most urgent concern in this scenario. Choice B (Serum bicarbonate of 20 mEq/L) reflects metabolic acidosis, which is expected in DKA but does not require immediate intervention. Choice C (Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg) is slightly elevated but not acutely concerning in the context of DKA.
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