Nursing Elites

1. During a health assessment for a family with a history of cardiovascular disease, which family member should be prioritized for further evaluation and intervention?

• A. a 45-year-old father who smokes and has high cholesterol
• B. a 17-year-old daughter who is overweight and inactive
• C. a 50-year-old mother with a history of hypertension
• D. a 12-year-old son who has a normal weight and is active

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The 45-year-old father who smokes and has high cholesterol should be prioritized for further evaluation and intervention. He has multiple risk factors for cardiovascular disease, including smoking and high cholesterol, which significantly increase his risk. Addressing these modifiable risk factors is crucial in preventing cardiovascular events. The daughter (Choice B) and mother (Choice C) also have risk factors, but the father's combination of smoking and high cholesterol places him at higher immediate risk, demanding priority intervention. The 12-year-old son (Choice D) with a normal weight and an active lifestyle has a lower risk profile and does not require immediate intervention compared to the father.

2. A client with hypertension is being seen in a community clinic. The nurse notes that the client has not been taking their prescribed medication regularly. What is the most appropriate initial intervention?

• A. Educate the client on the importance of medication adherence
• B. Explore the reasons for non-adherence with the client
• C. Refer the client to a hypertension specialist
• D. Adjust the client's medication regimen

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate initial intervention when a client is not adhering to prescribed medication is to explore the reasons for non-adherence with the client. Understanding the client's perspective can help identify barriers to adherence, such as side effects, cost, forgetfulness, or misunderstanding of the treatment. By addressing these reasons, the nurse can work collaboratively with the client to develop strategies to improve medication compliance. Educating the client on the importance of adherence (Choice A) may be necessary but should come after exploring the reasons for non-adherence. Referring the client to a hypertension specialist (Choice C) or adjusting the medication regimen (Choice D) should be considered after addressing the underlying reasons for non-adherence.

3. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS). Which laboratory result requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum osmolality of 320 mOsm/kg.
• B. Serum glucose of 600 mg/dL.
• C. Serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L.
• D. Serum sodium of 140 mEq/L.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum glucose level of 600 mg/dL is extremely high in a client with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS) and poses a significant risk of serious complications such as dehydration, coma, and electrolyte imbalances. Rapid intervention is crucial to normalize the glucose level and prevent further deterioration. Serum osmolality of 320 mOsm/kg, serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L, and serum sodium of 140 mEq/L, while important to monitor in HHS, do not represent an immediate life-threatening condition that requires urgent intervention compared to the critically high glucose level.

4. What information should the nurse provide a client who has undergone cryosurgery for stage 1A cervical cancer?

• A. Expect heavy, watery vaginal discharge for 3 to 6 weeks.
• B. Use a tampon instead of a sanitary napkin.
• C. Report any severe cramping immediately.
• D. Avoid sexual intercourse for 3 to 6 weeks.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After cryosurgery for stage 1A cervical cancer, clients should avoid sexual intercourse for 3 to 6 weeks to reduce the risk of infection. Heavy, watery vaginal discharge is expected but not the focus of post-procedure instructions. Using tampons is contraindicated as they can introduce bacteria into the healing cervix. While reporting severe cramping is important, avoiding sexual intercourse is the priority to prevent complications.

5. The healthcare professional is developing a teaching plan for an adolescent with a Milwaukee brace. Which instruction should the healthcare professional include?

• A. Wear the brace over a T-shirt for 23 hours a day.
• B. Remove the brace while sleeping.
• C. Wear the brace directly against the skin.
• D. Remove the brace while eating.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A Milwaukee brace should be worn over a T-shirt for 23 hours a day to reduce friction and chafing of the skin. This ensures that the brace is not directly against the skin, which can cause discomfort and skin irritation. Choice B is incorrect because the brace should typically be worn continuously, even while sleeping, unless otherwise instructed by a healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect as wearing the brace directly against the skin can lead to skin issues. Choice D is incorrect since the brace should not be removed while eating to maintain the prescribed wear time.

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