Nursing Elites

1. During a health assessment for a family with a history of cardiovascular disease, which family member should be prioritized for further evaluation and intervention?

• A. a 45-year-old father who smokes and has high cholesterol
• B. a 17-year-old daughter who is overweight and inactive
• C. a 50-year-old mother with a history of hypertension
• D. a 12-year-old son who has a normal weight and is active

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The 45-year-old father who smokes and has high cholesterol should be prioritized for further evaluation and intervention. He has multiple risk factors for cardiovascular disease, including smoking and high cholesterol, which significantly increase his risk. Addressing these modifiable risk factors is crucial in preventing cardiovascular events. The daughter (Choice B) and mother (Choice C) also have risk factors, but the father's combination of smoking and high cholesterol places him at higher immediate risk, demanding priority intervention. The 12-year-old son (Choice D) with a normal weight and an active lifestyle has a lower risk profile and does not require immediate intervention compared to the father.

2. A client presents at a community-based clinic with complaints of shortness of breath, headache, often uses a gasoline-powered pressure washer to clean equipment and farm buildings. Which type of poisoning is the most likely etiology of this client's symptoms?

• A. asbestos
• B. silica dust
• C. histoplasmosis
• D. carbon monoxide

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, carbon monoxide poisoning. This client's symptoms of shortness of breath and headache are consistent with carbon monoxide exposure, which can result from using gasoline-powered equipment in poorly ventilated areas. Asbestos (choice A) is linked to respiratory issues but does not typically present with these acute symptoms. Silica dust (choice B) exposure is associated with lung damage, not the symptoms described. Histoplasmosis (choice C) is a fungal infection and would not typically manifest with the symptoms presented by the client.

3. A client who is receiving intravenous heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Continue the heparin infusion as prescribed.
• B. Decrease the heparin infusion rate.
• C. Increase the heparin infusion rate.
• D. Stop the heparin infusion and notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is significantly elevated, indicating a high risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. In this case, the heparin infusion should be stopped immediately to prevent further anticoagulation and an increased bleeding risk. Notifying the healthcare provider is essential to discuss alternative anticoagulation strategies or interventions. Continuing heparin therapy without action could lead to severe bleeding complications. Decreasing or increasing the heparin infusion rate would exacerbate the risk of bleeding, making options A, B, and C incorrect.

4. The nurse is assessing an older adult client and determines that the client's left upper eyelid droops, covering more of the iris than the right eyelid. Which description should the nurse use to document this finding?

• A. Ptosis on the left eyelid.
• B. Nystagmus.
• C. Astigmatism.
• D. Exophthalmos.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Ptosis on the left eyelid.' Ptosis is the term used to describe an eyelid droop that covers a large portion of the iris, which may be caused by issues with the oculomotor nerve or eyelid muscles. Choice B, 'Nystagmus,' refers to involuntary eye movements and is not related to eyelid drooping. Choice C, 'Astigmatism,' is a refractive error affecting vision due to an irregularly shaped cornea or lens, not an eyelid condition. Choice D, 'Exophthalmos,' is a protrusion of the eyeball associated with conditions like hyperthyroidism, not eyelid drooping.

5. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with pulmonary edema. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Peripheral edema.
• B. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
• C. Jugular vein distention.
• D. Productive cough with pink, frothy sputum.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A productive cough with pink, frothy sputum is a classic sign of pulmonary edema, indicating fluid in the lungs. This finding requires immediate intervention to prevent respiratory compromise and worsening of the condition. Peripheral edema (Choice A) is a manifestation of heart failure but is not as urgent as addressing pulmonary edema. Oxygen saturation of 88% (Choice B) is low and requires attention, but the pink, frothy sputum signifies acute respiratory distress. Jugular vein distention (Choice C) can be seen in heart failure, but the immediate concern in this scenario is addressing the pulmonary edema to ensure adequate gas exchange and oxygenation.

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