Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is completing an incident report about a medication error that she made when she accidentally administered too much insulin to a diabetic client. All of the following are components of this documentation EXCEPT:

• A. The reason for administering the wrong dose
• B. The type of drug involved
• C. The amount of insulin that was given
• D. Any adverse effects on the client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When completing an incident report for a medication error, it is essential to include factual information such as the type of drug involved, the amount administered, and any adverse effects on the client. However, stating the reason for administering the wrong dose should be avoided in documentation. The focus should be on reporting what happened rather than assigning blame or admitting fault. This approach helps in ensuring a thorough and accurate account of the medication error without introducing subjective elements that could complicate the investigation or resolution process. Therefore, the correct answer is 'The reason for administering the wrong dose.' Choices A, B, and D are vital components of incident report documentation, providing crucial details that help in understanding the error and its impact on the client.

2. A patient is in the office for a cyst removal and is very anxious about the procedure. Which of the following descriptions of his respirations would be expected?

• A. Bradypnea
• B. Orthopnea
• C. Tachypnea
• D. Dyspnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tachypnea is defined as a rapid, quick, and shallow respiration rate. When a patient is anxious, they may hyperventilate, leading to tachypnea. Bradypnea (Choice A) is slow breathing, which is not expected in an anxious patient. Orthopnea (Choice B) is difficulty breathing while lying down and is not directly related to anxiety. Dyspnea (Choice D) is shortness of breath, which may not be the primary respiratory pattern seen in an anxious patient undergoing a procedure. Therefore, the correct choice is tachypnea as it aligns with the expected respiratory response to anxiety.

3. A resident brings several electronic devices to a nursing home. One of the devices has a two-pronged plug. What rationale should the nurse provide when explaining why an electrical device must have a three-pronged plug?

• A. Controls stray electrical currents.
• B. Promotes efficient use of electricity.
• C. Shuts off the appliance if there is an electrical surge.
• D. Divides the electricity among the appliances in the room.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A three-pronged plug functions as a ground to dissipate stray electrical currents. This helps prevent electrical shocks and ensures the safety of the user. Choice B is incorrect because the number of prongs on a plug does not impact the efficient use of electricity. Choice C is incorrect because a three-pronged plug does not shut off the appliance during an electrical surge; that role is typically fulfilled by surge protectors. Choice D is incorrect as a three-pronged plug does not divide electricity among appliances in a room; it primarily serves as a safety measure to handle excess electrical currents.

4. The nurse is taking an initial blood pressure reading on a 72-year-old patient with documented hypertension. How should the nurse proceed?

• A. Cuff should be placed on the patient's arm and inflated 30 mm Hg above the point at which the palpated pulse disappears.
• B. Cuff should be inflated to 200 mm Hg in an attempt to obtain the most accurate systolic reading.
• C. Cuff should be inflated 30 mm Hg above the patient's pulse rate.
• D. After confirming the patient's previous blood pressure readings, the cuff should be inflated 30 mm Hg above the highest systolic reading recorded.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When measuring blood pressure, it's important to account for the possibility of an auscultatory gap, which occurs in about 5% of individuals, particularly those with hypertension due to a noncompliant arterial system. To detect an auscultatory gap, the cuff should be inflated 20 to 30 mm Hg beyond the point at which the palpated pulse disappears. This ensures an accurate measurement of blood pressure by overcoming the potential gap in sounds. Choice A is correct as it follows this guideline. Choices B and C are incorrect because inflating the cuff to 200 mm Hg or above the patient's pulse rate does not address the specific issue of an auscultatory gap. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on the patient's previous readings rather than the current measurement technique needed to detect an auscultatory gap.

5. A urine pregnancy test:

• A. May be negative even if a blood pregnancy test is positive.
• B. Is positive only during the first trimester of pregnancy.
• C. Will be negative if the amount of LH isn't enough to meet or exceed the sensitivity of the testing device.
• D. All of the above.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A urine pregnancy test detects HCG in a pregnant woman's urine. Blood levels of HCG are usually higher and register earlier than HCG levels in the urine. Choice A is correct because urine pregnancy tests may be negative even if a blood pregnancy test is positive due to the differences in HCG levels in blood and urine. Choice B is incorrect because a urine pregnancy test can be positive throughout pregnancy, not just in the first trimester. Choice C is incorrect because LH (luteinizing hormone) is not the hormone detected in a pregnancy test; it is HCG (human chorionic gonadotropin). Choice D is incorrect because not all the statements provided are true.

Similar Questions