Nursing Elites

1. According to the American Heart Association standards, high-quality CPR for an adult includes all of the following EXCEPT:

• A. Push hard
• B. Push fast
• C. Allow chest recoil between compressions
• D. Pause CPR as each drug is administered

Correct answer: D

Rationale: High-quality CPR for adults should not be paused for drug administration. The correct CPR technique involves pushing hard and fast, at a rate of at least 100 compressions per minute and to a depth of at least 2 inches. It is also essential to allow chest recoil between compressions to enable proper blood circulation. Pausing CPR for drug administration would delay the delivery of continuous chest compressions, which are crucial for maintaining blood flow and oxygenation during cardiac arrest.

2. Which bloodborne pathogen is the most virulent? (Choose the BEST answer.)

• A. HCV
• B. HPV
• C. HIV
• D. HBV

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is HCV (Hepatitis C Virus). Hepatitis C is considered the most virulent bloodborne pathogen, being 100 times more virulent than Hepatitis B. HPV (Human Papillomavirus) is a sexually transmitted infection but is not a bloodborne pathogen. HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) affects the immune system but is not as virulent as Hepatitis C in terms of bloodborne transmission. HBV (Hepatitis B Virus) is less virulent compared to HCV in the context of bloodborne transmission.

3. When examining an infant, which area should the nurse examine first?

• A. Ear
• B. Nose
• C. Throat
• D. Abdomen

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When examining an infant, the nurse should start by examining the least-distressing areas first before moving on to more invasive areas. The abdomen is typically the least distressing area to examine, so it should be assessed first. Examining the eye, ear, nose, and throat are considered more invasive and should be saved for last. Therefore, the correct choice is to examine the abdomen first to ensure a comfortable and less distressing examination process for the infant. Choices A, B, and C (Ear, Nose, Throat) are more invasive areas and should be examined after the abdomen.

4. When providing endotracheal suctioning, for how long should the nurse suction the endotracheal tube of an intubated client on a ventilator at a time?

• A. Five seconds or less
• B. Ten seconds or less
• C. At least 30 seconds
• D. No longer than 60 seconds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When providing endotracheal suctioning, the nurse should suction for no longer than ten seconds at a time. Suctioning for longer than ten seconds may cause hypoxia or bronchospasm. Extended suctioning may also place the client at risk of injury to the bronchial and tracheal structures. Choices C and D suggest prolonged suctioning durations that can lead to adverse effects on the client. Choice A, suctioning for five seconds or less, may not be adequate to clear secretions effectively, making choice B the most appropriate duration for safe and efficient suctioning in this scenario.

5. Which of the following statements best describes substance P?

• A. Substance P decreases a client's sensitivity to pain
• B. Substance P levels are drawn before administration of narcotic analgesics
• C. Substance P is found in the brain and is responsible for pain control and management of depression
• D. Substance P is found in the dorsal horn of the spinal column

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Substance P is a neurotransmitter found in the brain and the dorsal horn of the spinal column, not just in the brain. It is associated with pain transmission and modulation. Substance P is known to cause inflammation, edema, and pain. While it plays a role in pain perception, it does not decrease a client's sensitivity to pain (Choice A), nor are its levels typically drawn before administering narcotic analgesics (Choice B). Although substance P is involved in pain control, it is not responsible for managing depression (Choice C). Therefore, the correct statement is that substance P is found in the dorsal horn of the spinal column.

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