Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing an 80-year-old male patient. Which assessment finding would be considered normal?

• A. Decrease in body weight from his younger years
• B. Decrease in deposits of fat in the cheeks and forearms
• C. Presence of kyphosis and flexion in bilateral knees and hips
• D. Change in overall body proportion, including a longer trunk and shorter extremities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In an 80-year-old male patient, the presence of kyphosis (rounded upper back) and flexion in bilateral knees and hips are considered normal age-related changes. These postural changes are commonly seen in older adults due to structural changes in the spine and joints. Option A is incorrect as aging individuals typically experience a decrease in body weight, not an increase. Option B is also incorrect as there is usually a decrease in subcutaneous fat from the face and periphery, rather than an increase in fat deposits in specific areas. Option D is incorrect because the change in overall body proportion with aging usually involves a shorter trunk and relatively longer extremities, not the other way around. This is because long bones do not shorten with age, leading to this characteristic change in body proportions.

2. How does the procedure for taking a pulse rate on an infant differ from an adult?

• A. Pulse rates are taken on infants using a different method.
• B. The apical pulse method is used on infants.
• C. Pulse rates on infants are taken with a sphygmomanometer.
• D. Pulse rates on infants are taken apically in the third intercostal space.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The apical pulse method is used on infants. This method involves placing a stethoscope in the fifth intercostal space, mid-clavicular line, and counting the beats for a full minute. It is a preferred method for infants due to their small size and the difficulty in palpating peripheral pulses accurately. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect as pulse rates are indeed taken on infants, albeit using a different method. Choice C is incorrect as a sphygmomanometer is typically used for measuring blood pressure, not pulse rates. Choice D is incorrect as pulse rates on infants are usually taken apically in the fifth intercostal space, not the third.

3. While measuring a patient's blood pressure, which factor influences a patient's blood pressure?

• A. Pulse rate
• B. Pulse pressure
• C. Vascular output
• D. Peripheral vascular resistance

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When measuring a patient's blood pressure, it is important to consider various factors that influence blood pressure. Peripheral vascular resistance plays a crucial role in regulating blood pressure. The level of blood pressure is affected by factors such as cardiac output, peripheral vascular resistance, volume of circulating blood, viscosity, and elasticity of the vessel walls. Pulse rate (Choice A) refers to the number of heartbeats per minute and is not a primary factor influencing blood pressure. Pulse pressure (Choice B) is the difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure and does not directly impact blood pressure regulation. Vascular output (Choice C) is not a recognized term in blood pressure regulation and is not a primary factor affecting blood pressure.

4. When examining an older adult, which technique should the nurse use?

• A. Minimize touching the patient as much as possible.
• B. Attempt to perform the entire physical examination during one visit.
• C. Speak loudly and slowly due to potential hearing deficits in aging adults.
• D. Arrange the sequence of the examination to allow as few position changes as possible.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When examining an older adult, it is crucial to arrange the sequence of the examination to minimize position changes. This helps prevent discomfort and fatigue for the older adult, who may have mobility issues. Option A is incorrect because physical touch is essential when examining older adults, as their other senses may be diminished. Option B is incorrect as it is better to break the examination into multiple visits to ensure thoroughness and comfort. Option C is incorrect because while some older adults may have hearing deficits, it is not appropriate to assume this for all individuals without proper assessment.

5. Why should direct care providers avoid glued-on artificial nails?

• A. Interfere with dexterity of the fingers.
• B. Could fall off in a patient's bed.
• C. Harbor microorganisms.
• D. Can scratch a patient.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Direct care providers, including nurses, should avoid glued-on artificial nails because studies have shown that artificial nails, especially when cracked, broken, or split, create crevices where microorganisms can thrive and multiply. This can lead to an increased risk of transmitting infections to patients. Therefore, the primary reason for avoiding glued-on artificial nails is their potential to harbor harmful microorganisms, making option C the correct choice. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because while they may present some issues, the primary concern is the risk of microbial contamination associated with artificial nails.

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