Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for four clients. The nurse should observe which of the following clients for a risk of vitamin B6 deficiency?

• A. A client who has cystic fibrosis
• B. A client who has chronic alcohol use disorder
• C. A client who takes phenytoin for a seizure disorder
• D. A client who is prescribed rifampin for tuberculosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Chronic alcohol use disorder can lead to vitamin B6 deficiency due to impaired absorption and increased excretion of the vitamin. While clients with cystic fibrosis may be at risk for fat-soluble vitamin deficiencies, such as vitamins A, D, E, and K, they are not specifically at high risk for vitamin B6 deficiency. Clients taking phenytoin are at risk for folate deficiency, not vitamin B6. Clients prescribed rifampin for tuberculosis are at risk for vitamin D deficiency, not vitamin B6.

2. A client has viral pneumonia affecting 2/3 of the right lung. What would be the best position to teach the client to lie in every other hour during the first 12 hours after admission?

• A. Side-lying on the left with the head elevated 10 degrees
• B. Side-lying on the left with the head elevated 35 degrees
• C. Side-lying on the right with the head elevated 10 degrees
• D. Side-lying on the right with the head elevated 35 degrees

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct position for a client with viral pneumonia affecting 2/3 of the right lung is side-lying on the left with the head elevated 10 degrees. This position helps maximize lung expansion and oxygenation in cases of pneumonia affecting the right lung. Choice B is incorrect as excessive elevation can put pressure on the lung, and choices C and D are incorrect as side-lying on the right would not be beneficial for a client with pneumonia in the right lung.

3. A client with a history of seizures is being monitored with an electroencephalogram (EEG). Which of these interventions should the nurse perform to prepare the client for the test?

• A. Instruct the client to avoid caffeine for 8 hours before the test
• B. Explain the procedure to the client and obtain consent
• C. Administer anticonvulsant medication as ordered
• D. Instruct the client to wash their hair the morning of the test

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Instructing the client to avoid caffeine for 8 hours before the EEG is essential. This intervention helps ensure accurate test results by preventing stimulation of the nervous system, which could interfere with the interpretation of the brain's electrical activity. Explaining the procedure and obtaining consent are important steps but do not directly impact the test results. Administering anticonvulsant medication as ordered is a medical intervention and not a preparation step for the test. Instructing the client to wash their hair the morning of the test is not necessary for EEG preparation.

4. Discharge instructions for a client taking alprazolam (Xanax) should include which of the following?

• A. Sedative hypnotics are effective analgesics
• B. Sudden cessation of alprazolam (Xanax) can cause rebound insomnia and nightmares
• C. Caffeine beverages can increase the effect of sedative hypnotics
• D. Avoidance of excessive exercise and high temperature is recommended

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Alprazolam should not be stopped abruptly as it can cause rebound insomnia and nightmares; gradual tapering is necessary. Choice A is incorrect as sedative hypnotics are not primarily used as analgesics. Choice C is incorrect as caffeine can decrease the effects of sedative hypnotics rather than increase them. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific recommendation to avoid excessive exercise or high temperature related to alprazolam use.

5. Why is it important for the healthcare provider to monitor blood pressure in clients receiving antipsychotic drugs?

• A. Orthostatic hypotension is a common side effect.
• B. Most antipsychotic drugs cause elevated blood pressure.
• C. This provides information on the amount of sodium allowed in the diet.
• D. It will indicate the need to institute anti-parkinsonian drugs.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because monitoring for orthostatic hypotension is crucial when clients are receiving antipsychotic drugs since it is a common side effect. Orthostatic hypotension can lead to symptoms like dizziness and falls, making it essential to monitor blood pressure regularly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because most antipsychotic drugs do not typically cause elevated blood pressure, monitoring blood pressure is not directly related to the amount of sodium in the diet, and blood pressure monitoring is not primarily used to determine the need for anti-parkinsonian drugs in clients receiving antipsychotic medications.

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