HESI RN
Nutrition HESI Practice Exam
1. A nurse is caring for four clients. The nurse should observe which of the following clients for a risk of vitamin B6 deficiency?
- A. A client who has cystic fibrosis
- B. A client who has chronic alcohol use disorder
- C. A client who takes phenytoin for a seizure disorder
- D. A client who is prescribed rifampin for tuberculosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Chronic alcohol use disorder can lead to vitamin B6 deficiency due to impaired absorption and increased excretion of the vitamin. While clients with cystic fibrosis may be at risk for fat-soluble vitamin deficiencies, such as vitamins A, D, E, and K, they are not specifically at high risk for vitamin B6 deficiency. Clients taking phenytoin are at risk for folate deficiency, not vitamin B6. Clients prescribed rifampin for tuberculosis are at risk for vitamin D deficiency, not vitamin B6.
2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an enteral feeding via an established NG tube. Which option is not part of the sequence the healthcare professional should follow to initiate the feeding?
- A. Verify tube placement
- B. Check the residual feeding contents
- C. Administer the feeding
- D. Limit protein intake
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct sequence for initiating enteral feeding includes verifying tube placement to ensure safety, checking the residual feeding contents to prevent complications, and then administering the feeding. Limiting protein intake is not a step in the sequence for initiating enteral feeding. Protein intake may be adjusted based on the patient's specific nutritional needs, but it is not a part of the immediate sequence for initiating the feeding. Therefore, option D is the correct answer. Options A, B, and C are essential steps to ensure the safe and effective administration of enteral feeding.
3. Although non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs such as ibuprofen (Motrin) are beneficial in managing arthritis pain, the nurse should caution clients about which of the following common side effects?
- A. Urinary incontinence
- B. Constipation
- C. Nystagmus
- D. Occult bleeding
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Occult bleeding. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like ibuprofen are known to cause gastrointestinal side effects, including occult bleeding. Occult bleeding refers to bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract that may not be visible in the stool, leading to potential complications like anemia. Urinary incontinence (choice A) is not a common side effect of NSAIDs. Constipation (choice B) is also not a typical side effect associated with NSAIDs. Nystagmus (choice C) is an involuntary eye movement and is not a common side effect of NSAIDs. Therefore, the nurse should caution clients about the risk of occult bleeding when using NSAIDs for arthritis pain management.
4. A client is admitted for first and second degree burns on the face, neck, anterior chest, and hands. The nurse's priority should be
- A. Cover the areas with dry sterile dressings
- B. Assess for dyspnea or stridor
- C. Initiate intravenous therapy
- D. Administer pain medication
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess for dyspnea or stridor. In burn cases involving the face, neck, or chest, there is a risk of airway compromise due to swelling. Dyspnea (difficulty breathing) or stridor (noisy breathing) can indicate airway obstruction or respiratory distress, which requires immediate intervention. Covering the burns with dry sterile dressings (choice A) can be important but ensuring airway patency takes precedence. Initiating intravenous therapy (choice C) may be necessary but not the priority over assessing the airway. Administering pain medication (choice D) is important for comfort but should come after ensuring the airway is clear and breathing is adequate.
5. The nurse is caring for a client who requires a mechanical ventilator for breathing. The high-pressure alarm goes off on the ventilator. What is the first action the nurse should perform?
- A. Disconnect the client from the ventilator and use a manual resuscitation bag
- B. Perform a quick assessment of the client's condition
- C. Call the respiratory therapist for help
- D. Press the alarm reset button on the ventilator
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When the high-pressure alarm on a ventilator goes off, the nurse's initial action should be to perform a quick assessment of the client's condition. This assessment helps in promptly identifying the cause of the alarm, such as mucus plugging, kinking of the tubing, or other issues. By assessing the client first, the nurse can determine the appropriate intervention needed to address the alarm. Choices A and D are incorrect because disconnecting the client from the ventilator or pressing the alarm reset button should not be the initial actions without assessing the client's condition. While calling the respiratory therapist for help could be beneficial, assessing the client's condition should be the nurse's priority to address the immediate concern.
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