a male client with a long history of alcohol dependency arrives in the emergency department describing the feeling of bugs crawling on his body his bp
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Mental Health HESI

1. A male client with a long history of alcohol dependency arrives in the emergency department describing the feeling of bugs crawling on his body. His BP is 170/102, pulse rate is 110 bpm, and his blood alcohol level (BAL) is 0 mg/dl. Which medication should the nurse administer?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing hallucinations and symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the appropriate choice as it helps manage withdrawal symptoms, including hallucinations and elevated blood pressure in alcohol-dependent clients. Haloperidol (Haldol) (Choice A) is an antipsychotic but is not the first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal symptoms. Thiamine (Vitamin B1) (Choice B) is essential in alcohol withdrawal treatment for preventing Wernicke's encephalopathy, but in this case, addressing the acute withdrawal symptoms is the priority. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) (Choice C) is an antihistamine that may help with itching or mild anxiety but is not the preferred choice for managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms like hallucinations and elevated blood pressure.

2. A client with a history of substance abuse is admitted to the hospital for treatment of a new illness. Which of the following is the most important to assess upon admission?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing the history of recent drug use is crucial when admitting a client with a history of substance abuse. Understanding recent drug use helps in managing potential withdrawal symptoms, preventing drug interactions with the new treatment, and ensuring appropriate care. Assessing current employment status (choice B) is important for social and financial support but is not as crucial as assessing recent drug use in this scenario. Family history of mental illness (choice C) and recent weight changes (choice D) are also important aspects of assessment but are not as immediate and critical as evaluating recent drug use in a client with a history of substance abuse.

3. The nurse is developing unit policies that will include nursing guidelines for maintaining a therapeutic milieu. Which interventions should be included when providing a therapeutic milieu in an inpatient setting?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse is responsible for maintaining a therapeutic milieu in an inpatient setting, which involves creating a secure and structured environment that promotes client safety and offers opportunities for clients to learn healthy coping skills. Regularly scheduled unit activities for peer interaction help foster socialization, support, and a sense of community among clients. Choices A and B are valuable interventions in mental health care but do not directly relate to creating a therapeutic milieu in an inpatient setting. Choice D, home visits, would typically occur post-discharge and focus on community reintegration, rather than maintaining a therapeutic milieu within the inpatient setting.

4. A male client tells the RN that he does not want to take the atypical antipsychotic drug, olanzapine (Zyprexa), because of the side effects he experienced when he took it previously. Which statement is best for the RN to provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: It is essential for the nurse to address the client's concerns about the side effects of the medication. By acknowledging the side effects and reassuring the client that they are manageable, the nurse empowers the client to make an informed decision about their treatment. This approach fosters trust between the client and the healthcare provider, promotes open communication, and supports treatment adherence. Choices B and D are not appropriate as they do not address the client's specific concern about the side effects or offer constructive support. Choice C is premature as switching medications should be considered after exploring ways to manage the side effects of the current medication.

5. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select all that apply.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention is to administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction. The presentation of stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign changes suggest an acute dystonic reaction, which is an extrapyramidal side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to manage these acute dystonic reactions. Option A is incorrect because holding the medication without addressing the acute symptoms may lead to worsening of the condition. Option B is incorrect as wiping with cold water or alcohol does not address the underlying cause of the symptoms. Option D is incorrect because it mentions tardive dyskinesia, which is a different condition characterized by involuntary movements that occur with long-term antipsychotic use, not the acute dystonic reaction seen here.

Similar Questions

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